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SB-1518 Public safety omnibus.(2023-2024)

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Date Published: 09/23/2024 09:00 PM
SB1518:v95#DOCUMENT

Senate Bill No. 1518
CHAPTER 495

An act to amend Section 6228 of the Family Code, to amend Section 226.8 of the Labor Code, to amend Sections 679.027, 745, 1203.4b, 1370, 1473, 2620, 3058.65, 11226, 13511.5, and 13519.6 of, and to repeal Section 1463.5 of, the Penal Code, and to amend Section 11500 of the Vehicle Code, relating to public safety.

[ Approved by Governor  September 22, 2024. Filed with Secretary of State  September 22, 2024. ]

LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


SB 1518, Committee on Public Safety. Public safety omnibus.
(1) Existing law requires law enforcement agencies to provide victims with specified information about victims’ rights and resources.
This bill would fix an erroneous cross-reference in these provisions.
(2) Existing law requires state and local law enforcement agencies to provide, upon request and without charging a fee, one copy of all incident report face sheets, one copy of all incident reports, or both, to a victim, or the representative of a victim, of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, or abuse of an elder or dependent adult, as specified.
This bill would update cross-references in these provisions.
(3) Existing law prohibits any person or employer from engaging in willful misclassification, as defined, of an individual as an independent contractor instead of an employee and in specified acts relating to the misclassified individual’s compensation. Existing law authorizes a public prosecutor, as defined, to enforce these provisions through specified methods.
This bill would fix an erroneous cross-reference in these provisions.
(4) Under existing law, an incarcerated person who successfully participates as an incarcerated hand crew member in the California Conservation Camp program or in a county incarcerated hand crew, or participates at a Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation institutional firehouse is, upon release, eligible for record expungement, as specified.
This bill would specify that participation in an institutional firehouse must also be successful, as specified, to be qualifying. The bill would make other nonsubstantive clarifying changes to this provision.
(5) Existing law prohibits a person from being tried for a criminal offense while they are mentally incompetent. Existing law prescribes the procedure for a person found to be mentally incompetent to be restored to competence.
This bill would correct erroneous cross-references in these provisions and make other technical corrections.
(6) Existing law allows a person who is unlawfully imprisoned or restrained of their liberty to prosecute a writ of habeas corpus to inquire into the cause of their imprisonment or restraint. Existing law prohibits the state from seeking a criminal conviction or sentence on the basis of race, ethnicity, or national origin. Existing law authorizes a defendant to file a motion in the trial court or, if judgment has been imposed, to file a petition for writ of habeas corpus to allege a violation of this prohibition.
This bill would fix an erroneous cross-reference in these provisions.
(7) Existing law establishes the Trial Court Trust Fund, the proceeds of which are apportioned to fund trial court operations, as well as providing for the direct payment or reimbursement of the actual costs of operating one or more trial courts upon the authorization of the participating courts.
This bill would repeal an obsolete provision describing disbursements to the Trial Court Trust Fund.
(8)  Existing law sets forth the procedure to obtain, and the contents of, an order to have a person imprisoned in a state prison brought before any court for specified proceedings.
This bill would make technical changes to these provisions.
(9) Existing law authorizes a district attorney, city attorney, or citizen, as specified, to maintain an action to abate and prevent the nuisance and perpetually to enjoin the person conducting or maintaining it, and the owner, lessee, or agent of the building or place in or upon which the nuisance exists from directly or indirectly maintaining or permitting the nuisance.
This bill would remove an obsolete cross-reference and make other technical changes.
(10) Existing law requires every peace officer to have satisfactorily completed an introductory training course prescribed by the Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training. Existing law requires each applicant for admission to a basic course of training certified by the commission that includes the carrying and use of firearms, who is not sponsored by a local or other law enforcement agency, or is not a peace officer, to submit written certification from the Department of Justice that the applicant has no criminal history background that would disqualify them from possessing a firearm.
The bill would instead require the submission of a written certification that they are eligible to possess, receive, own, and purchase a firearm pursuant to state and federal law.
(11) Existing law defines a “hate crime” as a criminal act committed, in whole or in part, because of actual or perceived characteristics of the victim, including, among other things, race, religion, disability, and sexual orientation. Existing law requires each state and local law enforcement agency to adopt a hate crime policy, as specified.
This bill would revise references to “anti-Arab/Middle Eastern” hate crimes to “anti-Arab” and “anti-Middle Eastern.”
(12) Existing law makes it a crime for a person to act as an automobile dismantler without having an established place of business, meeting specified requirements, and having a current, valid license or temporary permit issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles. Existing law makes it a crime to possess 9 or more catalytic converters, as specified, without a valid license or temporary permit to operate as an automobile dismantler. Existing law makes the first violation punishable as an infraction and subsequent violations punishable as a misdemeanor, except that existing law does not specify the nature of a 4th or subsequent violation.
This bill would specify that a 4th or subsequent violation of the above-described provisions is a misdemeanor.
Vote: MAJORITY   Appropriation: NO   Fiscal Committee: YES   Local Program: NO  

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:


SECTION 1.

 Section 6228 of the Family Code is amended to read:

6228.
 (a) State and local law enforcement agencies shall provide, upon request and without charging a fee, one copy of all incident report face sheets, one copy of all incident reports, a copy of any accompanying or related photographs of a victim’s injuries, property damage, or any other photographs that are noted in the incident report, and a copy of 911 recordings, if any, to a victim, or the victim’s representative as defined in subdivision (g), of a crime that constitutes an act of any of the following:
(1) Domestic violence, as defined in Section 6211.
(2) Sexual assault, as defined in Sections 261, 261.5, 265, 266, 266a, 266b, 266c, 266g, 266j, 267, 269, 273.4, 285, 286, 287, 288, 288.5, 289, or 311.4 of, or former Section 262 or 288a of, the Penal Code.
(3) Stalking, as defined in Section 1708.7 of the Civil Code or Section 646.9 of the Penal Code.
(4) Human trafficking, as defined in Section 236.1 of the Penal Code.
(5) Abuse of an elder or a dependent adult, as defined in Section 15610.07 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(b) (1) A copy of an incident report face sheet shall be made available during regular business hours to a victim or the victim’s representative no later than 48 hours after being requested, unless the state or local law enforcement agency informs the victim or the victim’s representative of the reasons why, for good cause, the incident report face sheet is not available, in which case the incident report face sheet shall be made available no later than five working days after the request is made.
(2) A copy of the incident report, any accompanying or related photographs of a victim’s injuries, property damage, or any other photographs that are noted in the incident report, and a copy of 911 recordings, if any, shall be made available during regular business hours to a victim or the victim’s representative no later than five working days after being requested, unless the state or local law enforcement agency informs the victim or the victim’s representative of the reasons why, for good cause, the items are not available, in which case the items shall be made available no later than 10 working days after the request is made.
(c) A person requesting copies under this section shall present state or local law enforcement with the person’s identification, including a current, valid driver’s license, a state-issued identification card, or a passport. If the person is a representative of the victim and the victim is deceased, the representative shall also present a certified copy of the death certificate or other satisfactory evidence of the death of the victim at the time a request is made. If the person is a representative of the victim and the victim is alive and not the subject of a conservatorship, the representative shall also present a written authorization, signed by the victim, making the person the victim’s personal representative.
(d) This section shall apply to requests for domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, or abuse of an elder or a dependent adult face sheets or incident reports, photographs, 911 recordings, and evidence made within five years from the date of completion of the incident report.
(e) This section shall be known and may be cited as the Access to Domestic Violence Reports Act of 1999.
(f) For purposes of this section, “victim” includes a minor who is 12 years of age or older.
(g) (1) For purposes of this section, if the victim is deceased, a “representative of the victim” means any of the following:
(A) The surviving spouse.
(B) A surviving child of the decedent who has attained 18 years of age.
(C) A domestic partner, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 297.
(D) A surviving parent of the decedent.
(E) A surviving adult relative.
(F) The personal representative of the victim, as defined in Section 58 of the Probate Code, if one is appointed.
(G) The public administrator if one has been appointed.
(2) For purposes of this section, if the victim is not deceased, a “representative of the victim” means any of the following:
(A) A parent, guardian, or adult child of the victim, or an adult sibling of a victim 12 years of age or older, who shall present to law enforcement identification pursuant to subdivision (c). A guardian shall also present to law enforcement a copy of the letters of guardianship demonstrating that the person is the appointed guardian of the victim.
(B) An attorney for the victim, who shall present to law enforcement identification pursuant to subdivision (c) and written proof that the person is the attorney for the victim.
(C) A conservator of the victim who shall present to law enforcement identification pursuant to subdivision (c) and a copy of the letters of conservatorship demonstrating that the person is the appointed conservator of the victim.
(3) A representative of the victim does not include any person who has been convicted of murder in the first degree, as defined in Section 189 of the Penal Code, of the victim, or any person identified in the incident report face sheet as a suspect.

SEC. 2.

 Section 226.8 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

226.8.
 (a) It is unlawful for any person or employer to engage in any of the following activities:
(1) Willful misclassification of an individual as an independent contractor.
(2) Charging an individual who has been willfully misclassified as an independent contractor a fee, or making any deductions from compensation, for any purpose, including for goods, materials, space rental, services, government licenses, repairs, equipment maintenance, or fines arising from the individual’s employment where any of the acts described in this paragraph would have violated the law if the individual had not been misclassified.
(b) If the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or a court issues a determination that a person or employer has engaged in any of the enumerated violations of subdivision (a), the person or employer shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than five thousand dollars ($5,000) and not more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) for each violation, in addition to any other penalties or fines permitted by law.
(c) If the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or a court issues a determination that a person or employer has engaged in any of the enumerated violations of subdivision (a) and the person or employer has engaged in or is engaging in a pattern or practice of these violations, the person or employer shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) and not more than twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) for each violation, in addition to any other penalties or fines permitted by law.
(d) (1) If the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or a court issues a determination that a person or employer that is a licensed contractor pursuant to the Contractors’ State License Law has violated subdivision (a), the agency, in addition to any other remedy that has been ordered, shall transmit a certified copy of the order to the Contractors’ State License Board.
(2) The registrar of the Contractors’ State License Board shall initiate disciplinary action against a licensee within 30 days of receiving a certified copy of an agency or court order that resulted in disbarment pursuant to paragraph (1).
(e) If the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or a court issues a determination that a person or employer has violated subdivision (a), the agency or court, in addition to any other remedy that has been ordered, shall order the person or employer to display prominently on its internet website, in an area which is accessible to all employees and the general public, or, if the person or employer does not have an internet website, to display prominently in an area that is accessible to all employees and the general public at each location where a violation of subdivision (a) occurred, a notice that sets forth all of the following:
(1) That the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or a court, as applicable, has found that the person or employer has committed a serious violation of the law by engaging in the willful misclassification of employees.
(2) That the person or employer has changed its business practices in order to avoid committing further violations of this section.
(3) That any employee who believes that they are being misclassified as an independent contractor may contact the Labor and Workforce Development Agency. The notice shall include the mailing address, email address, and telephone number of the agency.
(4) That the notice is being posted pursuant to a state order.
(f) In addition to including the information specified in subdivision (e), a person or employer also shall satisfy the following requirements in preparing the notice:
(1) An officer shall sign the notice.
(2) It shall post the notice for one year commencing with the date of the final decision and order.
(g) (1) In accordance with the procedures set forth in Sections 98, 98.1, 98.2, 98.3, 98.7, 98.74, or 1197.1, the Labor Commissioner may enforce this section and issue a determination that a person or employer has violated subdivision (a). This enforcement of this section may include investigating an alleged violation of subdivision (a), ordering appropriate temporary relief to mitigate the violation or to maintain the status quo pending the completion of a investigation or hearing, issuance of a citation against an employer who violates subdivision (a), and filing a civil action. If a citation is issued, the procedures for issuing, contesting, and enforcing judgments for citations and civil penalties issued by the Labor Commissioner shall be the same as those set out in Section 98.74 or 1197.1, as appropriate. A public prosecutor, as defined in Section 180, may also enforce this section by seeking the damages described in paragraph (2).
(2) In any enforcement pursuant to this subdivision, for each employee subject to Sections 98 to 98.2, inclusive, the Labor Commissioner under Section 98.3, 98.7, 98.74, or 1197.1, or a public prosecutor, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 180, may alternatively recover the penalties set forth in subdivisions (b) and (c) as damages payable to the employee. An employee is entitled to either recover the damages as provided for in this section or to enforce a civil penalty, as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 2699, but not both, for the same violation. Except as specified in this section, the remedy provided by this section is cumulative and does not limit the availability of any other remedy available to the employee.
(h) Any administrative or civil penalty, damages, or disciplinary action pursuant to this section shall remain in effect against any successor corporation, owner, or business entity that satisfies both of the following:
(1) Has one or more of the same principals or officers as the person or employer subject to the penalty or action.
(2) Is engaged in the same or a similar business as the person or employer subject to the penalty or action.
(i) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Determination” means an order, decision, award, or citation issued by an agency or a court of competent jurisdiction for which the time to appeal has expired and for which no appeal is pending.
(2) “Labor and Workforce Development Agency” means the Labor and Workforce Development Agency or any of its departments, divisions, commissions, boards, or agencies.
(3) “Officer” means the chief executive officer, president, any vice president in charge of a principal business unit, division, or function, or any other officer of the corporation who performs a policymaking function. If the employer is a partnership, “officer” means a partner. If the employer is a sole proprietor, “officer” means the owner.
(4) “Willful misclassification” means avoiding employee status for an individual by voluntarily and knowingly misclassifying that individual as an independent contractor.
(j) Nothing in this section is intended to limit any rights or remedies otherwise available at law.

SEC. 3.

 Section 679.027 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

679.027.
 (a) Every law enforcement agency investigating a criminal act and every agency prosecuting a criminal act shall, as provided herein, at the time of initial contact with a crime victim, during followup investigation, or as soon thereafter as deemed appropriate by investigating officers or prosecuting attorneys, inform each victim, or the victim’s next of kin if the victim is deceased, of the rights they may have under applicable law relating to the victimization, including rights relating to housing, employment, compensation, and immigration relief.
(b) (1) Every law enforcement agency investigating a criminal act and every agency prosecuting a criminal act shall, as provided herein, at the time of initial contact with a crime victim, during followup investigation, or as soon thereafter as deemed appropriate by investigating officers or prosecuting attorneys, provide or make available to each victim of the criminal act without charge or cost a “Victim Protections and Resources” card described in paragraph (3).
(2) The Victim Protections and Resources card may be designed as part of and included with the “Marsy Rights” card described by Section 679.026.
(3) By June 1, 2025, the Attorney General shall design and make available in PDF or other imaging format to every agency listed in paragraph (1) a “Victim Protections and Resources” card, which shall contain information in lay terms about victim rights and resources, including, but not limited to, the following:
(A) Information about the rights provided by Sections 230 and 230.1 of the Labor Code.
(B) Information about the rights provided by Section 1946.7 of the Civil Code.
(C) Information about the rights provided by Section 1161.3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, including information in lay terms about which crimes and tenants are eligible and under what circumstances.
(D) Information about federal immigration relief available to certain victims of crime.
(E) Information about the program established by Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 13950) of Part 4 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, including information about the types of expenses the program may reimburse, eligibility, and how to apply.
(F) Information about the program established by Chapter 3.1 (commencing with Section 6205) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(G) Information about eligibility for filing a restraining or protective order.
(H) Contact information for the Victims’ Legal Resource Center established by Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 13897) of Title 6 of Part 4.
(I) A list of trauma recovery centers funded by the state pursuant to Section 13963.1 of the Government Code, with their contact information, which shall be updated annually.
(J) The availability of community-based restorative justice programs and processes available to them, including programs serving their community, county, county jails, juvenile detention facilities, and the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.
(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2024, only if General Fund moneys over the multiyear forecasts beginning in the 2024–25 fiscal year are available to support ongoing augmentations and actions, and if an appropriation is made to backfill the Restitution Fund to support the actions in this section.

SEC. 4.

 Section 745 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

745.
 (a) The state shall not seek or obtain a criminal conviction or seek, obtain, or impose a sentence on the basis of race, ethnicity, or national origin. A violation is established if the defendant proves, by a preponderance of the evidence, any of the following:
(1) The judge, an attorney in the case, a law enforcement officer involved in the case, an expert witness, or juror exhibited bias or animus towards the defendant because of the defendant’s race, ethnicity, or national origin.
(2) During the defendant’s trial, in court and during the proceedings, the judge, an attorney in the case, a law enforcement officer involved in the case, an expert witness, or juror, used racially discriminatory language about the defendant’s race, ethnicity, or national origin, or otherwise exhibited bias or animus towards the defendant because of the defendant’s race, ethnicity, or national origin, whether or not purposeful. This paragraph does not apply if the person speaking is relating language used by another that is relevant to the case or if the person speaking is giving a racially neutral and unbiased physical description of the suspect.
(3) The defendant was charged or convicted of a more serious offense than defendants of other races, ethnicities, or national origins who have engaged in similar conduct and are similarly situated, and the evidence establishes that the prosecution more frequently sought or obtained convictions for more serious offenses against people who share the defendant’s race, ethnicity, or national origin in the county where the convictions were sought or obtained.
(4) (A) A longer or more severe sentence was imposed on the defendant than was imposed on other similarly situated individuals convicted of the same offense, and longer or more severe sentences were more frequently imposed for that offense on people that share the defendant’s race, ethnicity, or national origin than on defendants of other races, ethnicities, or national origins in the county where the sentence was imposed.
(B) A longer or more severe sentence was imposed on the defendant than was imposed on other similarly situated individuals convicted of the same offense, and longer or more severe sentences were more frequently imposed for the same offense on defendants in cases with victims of one race, ethnicity, or national origin than in cases with victims of other races, ethnicities, or national origins, in the county where the sentence was imposed.
(b) A defendant may file a motion pursuant to this section, or a petition for writ of habeas corpus or a motion under Section 1473.7, in a court of competent jurisdiction, alleging a violation of subdivision (a). For claims based on the trial record, a defendant may raise a claim alleging a violation of subdivision (a) on direct appeal from the conviction or sentence. The defendant may also move to stay the appeal and request remand to the superior court to file a motion pursuant to this section. If the motion is based in whole or in part on conduct or statements by the judge, the judge shall disqualify themselves from any further proceedings under this section.
(c) If a motion is filed in the trial court and the defendant makes a prima facie showing of a violation of subdivision (a), the trial court shall hold a hearing. A motion made at trial shall be made as soon as practicable upon the defendant learning of the alleged violation. A motion that is not timely may be deemed waived, in the discretion of the court.
(1) At the hearing, evidence may be presented by either party, including, but not limited to, statistical evidence, aggregate data, expert testimony, and the sworn testimony of witnesses. The court may also appoint an independent expert. For the purpose of a motion and hearing under this section, out-of-court statements that the court finds trustworthy and reliable, statistical evidence, and aggregated data are admissible for the limited purpose of determining whether a violation of subdivision (a) has occurred.
(2) The defendant shall have the burden of proving a violation of subdivision (a) by a preponderance of the evidence. The defendant does not need to prove intentional discrimination.
(3) At the conclusion of the hearing, the court shall make findings on the record.
(d) A defendant may file a motion requesting disclosure to the defense of all evidence relevant to a potential violation of subdivision (a) in the possession or control of the state. A motion filed under this section shall describe the type of records or information the defendant seeks. Upon a showing of good cause, the court shall order the records to be released. Upon a showing of good cause, and in order to protect a privacy right or privilege, the court may permit the prosecution to redact information prior to disclosure or may subject disclosure to a protective order. If a statutory privilege or constitutional privacy right cannot be adequately protected by redaction or a protective order, the court shall not order the release of the records.
(e) Notwithstanding any other law, except as provided in subdivision (k), or for an initiative approved by the voters, if the court finds, by a preponderance of evidence, a violation of subdivision (a), the court shall impose a remedy specific to the violation found from the following list:
(1) Before a judgment has been entered, the court may impose any of the following remedies:
(A) Declare a mistrial, if requested by the defendant.
(B) Discharge the jury panel and empanel a new jury.
(C) If the court determines that it would be in the interest of justice, dismiss enhancements, special circumstances, or special allegations, or reduce one or more charges.
(2) (A) After a judgment has been entered, if the court finds that a conviction was sought or obtained in violation of subdivision (a), the court shall vacate the conviction and sentence, find that it is legally invalid, and order new proceedings consistent with subdivision (a). If the court finds that the only violation of subdivision (a) that occurred is based on paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), the court may modify the judgment to a lesser included or lesser related offense. On resentencing, the court shall not impose a new sentence greater than that previously imposed.
(B) After a judgment has been entered, if the court finds that only the sentence was sought, obtained, or imposed in violation of subdivision (a), the court shall vacate the sentence, find that it is legally invalid, and impose a new sentence. On resentencing, the court shall not impose a new sentence greater than that previously imposed.
(3) When the court finds there has been a violation of subdivision (a), the defendant shall not be eligible for the death penalty.
(4) The remedies available under this section do not foreclose any other remedies available under the United States Constitution, the California Constitution, or any other law.
(f) This section also applies to adjudications and dispositions in the juvenile delinquency system and adjudications to transfer a juvenile case to adult court.
(g) This section shall not prevent the prosecution of hate crimes pursuant to Sections 422.6 to 422.865, inclusive.
(h) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “More frequently sought or obtained” or “more frequently imposed” means that the totality of the evidence demonstrates a significant difference in seeking or obtaining convictions or in imposing sentences comparing individuals who have engaged in similar conduct and are similarly situated, and the prosecution cannot establish race-neutral reasons for the disparity. The evidence may include statistical evidence, aggregate data, or nonstatistical evidence. Statistical significance is a factor the court may consider, but is not necessary to establish a significant difference. In evaluating the totality of the evidence, the court shall consider whether systemic and institutional racial bias, racial profiling, and historical patterns of racially biased policing and prosecution may have contributed to, or caused differences observed in, the data or impacted the availability of data overall. Race-neutral reasons shall be relevant factors to charges, convictions, and sentences that are not influenced by implicit, systemic, or institutional bias based on race, ethnicity, or national origin.
(2) “Prima facie showing” means that the defendant produces facts that, if true, establish that there is a substantial likelihood that a violation of subdivision (a) occurred. For purposes of this section, a “substantial likelihood” requires more than a mere possibility, but less than a standard of more likely than not.
(3) “Relevant factors,” as that phrase applies to sentencing, means the factors in the California Rules of Court that pertain to sentencing decisions and any additional factors required to or permitted to be considered in sentencing under state law and under the state and federal constitutions.
(4) “Racially discriminatory language” means language that, to an objective observer, explicitly or implicitly appeals to racial bias, including, but not limited to, racially charged or racially coded language, language that compares the defendant to an animal, or language that references the defendant’s physical appearance, culture, ethnicity, or national origin. Evidence that particular words or images are used exclusively or disproportionately in cases where the defendant is of a specific race, ethnicity, or national origin is relevant to determining whether language is discriminatory.
(5) “State” includes the Attorney General, a district attorney, or a city prosecutor.
(6) “Similarly situated” means that factors that are relevant in charging and sentencing are similar and do not require that all individuals in the comparison group are identical. A defendant’s conviction history may be a relevant factor to the severity of the charges, convictions, or sentences. If it is a relevant factor and the defense produces evidence that the conviction history may have been impacted by racial profiling or historical patterns of racially biased policing, the court shall consider the evidence.
(i) A defendant may share a race, ethnicity, or national origin with more than one group. A defendant may aggregate data among groups to demonstrate a violation of subdivision (a).
(j) This section applies as follows:
(1) To all cases in which judgment is not final.
(2) Commencing January 1, 2023, to all cases in which, at the time of the filing of a petition pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1473 raising a claim under this section, the petitioner is sentenced to death or to cases in which the motion is filed pursuant to Section 1473.7 because of actual or potential immigration consequences related to the conviction or sentence, regardless of when the judgment or disposition became final.
(3) Commencing January 1, 2024, to all cases in which, at the time of the filing of a petition pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1473 raising a claim under this section, the petitioner is currently serving a sentence in the state prison or in a county jail pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or committed to the Division of Juvenile Justice for a juvenile disposition, regardless of when the judgment or disposition became final.
(4) Commencing January 1, 2025, to all cases filed pursuant to Section 1473.7 or subdivision (e) of Section 1473 in which judgment became final for a felony conviction or juvenile disposition that resulted in a commitment to the Division of Juvenile Justice on or after January 1, 2015.
(5) Commencing January 1, 2026, to all cases filed pursuant to Section 1473.7 or subdivision (e) of Section 1473 in which judgment was for a felony conviction or juvenile disposition that resulted in a commitment to the Division of Juvenile Justice, regardless of when the judgment or disposition became final.
(k) For petitions that are filed in cases for which judgment was entered before January 1, 2021, and only in those cases, if the petition is based on a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a), the petitioner shall be entitled to relief as provided in subdivision (e), unless the state proves beyond a reasonable doubt that the violation did not contribute to the judgment.

SEC. 5.

 Section 1203.4b of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1203.4b.
 (a) (1) If a defendant successfully participated in the California Conservation Camp program as an incarcerated individual hand crew member, as determined by the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, or successfully participated as a member of a county incarcerated individual hand crew, as determined by the appropriate county authority, or successfully participated at an institutional firehouse, as determined by the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, and has been released from custody, the defendant is eligible for relief pursuant to this section, except that incarcerated individuals who have been convicted of any of the following crimes are automatically ineligible for relief pursuant to this section:
(A) Murder.
(B) Kidnapping.
(C) Rape as defined in paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262.
(D) Lewd acts on a child under 14 years of age, as defined in Section 288.
(E) Any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life.
(F) Any sex offense requiring registration pursuant to Section 290.
(G) Escape from a secure perimeter within the previous 10 years.
(H) Arson.
(2) Any denial of relief pursuant to this section shall be without prejudice.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, successful participation in a conservation camp program or a program at an institutional firehouse and successful participation as a member of a county incarcerated individual hand crew, as determined by the appropriate county authority, means the incarcerated individual adequately performed their duties without any conduct that warranted removal from the program.
(b) (1) The defendant may file a petition for relief with the court in the county where the defendant was sentenced. The court shall provide a copy of the petition to the secretary, or, in the case of a county incarcerated individual hand crew member, the appropriate county authority.
(2) If the secretary or appropriate county authority certifies to the court that the defendant successfully participated in the incarcerated individual conservation camp program, or institutional firehouse, or successfully participated as a member of a county incarcerated individual hand crew, as determined by the appropriate county authority, as specified in subdivision (a), and has been released from custody, the court, in its discretion and in the interests of justice, may issue an order pursuant to subdivision (c).
(3) To be eligible for relief pursuant to this section, the defendant is not required to complete the term of their probation, parole, or supervised release. Notwithstanding any other law, the court, in providing relief pursuant to this section, shall order early termination of probation, parole, or supervised release if the court determines that the defendant has not violated any terms or conditions of probation, parole, or supervised release prior to, and during the pendency of, the petition for relief pursuant to this section.
(4) All convictions for which the defendant is serving a sentence at the time the defendant successfully participates in a program as specified in subdivision (a) are subject to relief pursuant to this section, except that a defendant convicted of any offense listed in subparagraphs (A) to (H), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) is ineligible for relief pursuant to this section.
(5) (A) A defendant who is granted an order pursuant to this section shall not be required to disclose the conviction on an application for licensure by any state or local agency.
(B) This paragraph does not apply to an application for licensure by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing, a position as a peace officer, public office, or for contracting with the California State Lottery Commission.
(c) (1) If the requirements of this section are met, the court, in its discretion and in the interest of justice, may permit the defendant to withdraw the plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere and enter a plea of not guilty, or, if the defendant has been convicted after a plea of not guilty, the court shall set aside the verdict of guilty, and, in either case, the court shall thereupon dismiss the accusations or information against the defendant and the defendant shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which the defendant has been convicted, except as provided in Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code.
(2) The relief available pursuant to this section shall not be granted if the defendant is currently charged with the commission of any other offense.
(3) The defendant may make the application and change of plea in person or by attorney.
(4) (A) A petition for relief under this section shall not be denied due to an unfulfilled order of restitution or restitution fine.
(B) An unfulfilled order of restitution or restitution fine shall not be grounds for finding that a defendant did not successfully participate in the California Conservation Camp program as an incarcerated individual hand crew member or at an institutional firehouse, or that the defendant did not successfully participate as a member of a county incarcerated individual hand crew.
(C) When the court considers a petition for relief under this section, in its discretion and in the interest of justice, an unpaid order of restitution or restitution fine shall not be grounds for denial of the petition for relief.
(d) Relief granted pursuant to this section is subject to the following conditions:
(1) In any subsequent prosecution of the defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if the accusation or information had not been dismissed.
(2) The order shall state, and the defendant shall be informed, that the order does not relieve the defendant of the obligation to disclose the conviction in response to any direct question contained in any questionnaire or application for licensure by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing, a peace officer, public office, or for contracting with the California State Lottery Commission.
(3) Dismissal of an accusation or information pursuant to this section does not permit a person to own, possess, or have in the person’s custody or control any firearm or prevent their conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.
(4) Dismissal of an accusation or information underlying a conviction pursuant to this section does not permit a person prohibited from holding public office as a result of that conviction to hold public office.
(5) Dismissal of an accusation or information pursuant to this section does not release the defendant from the terms and conditions of any unexpired criminal protective order that has been issued by the court pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (i) of Section 136.2, subdivision (j) of Section 273.5, subdivision (l) of Section 368, or subdivision (k) of Section 646.9. These protective orders shall remain in full effect until expiration or until any further order by the court modifying or terminating the order, despite the dismissal of the underlying accusation or information.
(e) (1) Relief shall not be granted under this section unless the prosecuting attorney has been given 15 days’ notice of the petition for relief.
(2) It shall be presumed that the prosecuting attorney has received notice if proof of service is filed with the court.
(f) If, after receiving notice pursuant to subdivision (e), the prosecuting attorney fails to appear and object to a petition for dismissal, the prosecuting attorney may not move to set aside or otherwise appeal the grant of that petition.

SEC. 6.

 Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1370.
 (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.
(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.
(i) The court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system approved by the community program director, or their designee, that will promote the defendant’s speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.
(ii) (I) If a defendant has been found mentally incompetent, and the court has ordered commitment to a State Department of State Hospitals facility as described in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and is not in the custody of the local sheriff, the department shall inform the sheriff when a placement in a facility becomes available and make reasonable efforts to coordinate a delivery by the sheriff to transport the defendant to the facility. If the department has made reasonable attempts for 90 days, starting with the date of commitment, and the defendant has not been transported, as originally ordered under clause (i), the department shall inform the court and sheriff in writing.
(II) If the sheriff has not delivered the defendant to a State Department of State Hospitals facility within 90 days after the department’s written notice, the commitment to the State Department of State Hospitals shall be automatically stayed and the department may remove the defendant from the pending placement list until the court notifies the department in writing that the defendant is available for transport and the defendant shall regain their place on the pending placement list.
(iii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of persons with a mental health disorder, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.
(iv) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the person’s release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.
(v) (I) If, at any time after the court finds that the defendant is mentally incompetent and before the defendant is transported to a facility pursuant to this section, the court is provided with any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, the court may make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion.
(II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), if a defendant is found mentally incompetent and is transferred to a facility described in Section 4361.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court may, at any time upon receiving any information that the defendant may benefit from diversion pursuant to Chapter 2.8A (commencing with Section 1001.35) of Title 6, make a finding that the defendant is an appropriate candidate for diversion.
(vi) If a defendant is found by the court to be an appropriate candidate for diversion pursuant to clause (v), the defendant’s eligibility shall be determined pursuant to Section 1001.36. A defendant granted diversion may participate for the lesser of the period specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) or the applicable period described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 1001.36. If, during that period, the court determines that criminal proceedings should be reinstated pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 1001.36, the court shall, pursuant to Section 1369, appoint a psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or any other expert the court may deem appropriate, to determine the defendant’s competence to stand trial.
(vii) Upon the dismissal of charges at the conclusion of the period of diversion, pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1001.36, a defendant shall no longer be deemed incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section.
(viii) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice, in writing, of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (iii) or (iv) for inclusion in the defendant’s state summary criminal history information.
(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.
(E) For purposes of this paragraph, “violent felony” means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.
(G) If, at any time after the court has declared a defendant incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this section, counsel for the defendant or a jail medical or mental health staff provider provides the court with substantial evidence that the defendant’s psychiatric symptoms have changed to such a degree as to create a doubt in the mind of the judge as to the defendant’s current mental incompetence, the court may appoint a psychiatrist or a licensed psychologist to opine as to whether the defendant has regained competence. If, in the opinion of that expert, the defendant has regained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372.
(H) (i) The State Department of State Hospitals may, pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, conduct an evaluation of the defendant in county custody to determine any of the following:
(I) The defendant has regained competence.
(II) There is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain competence in the foreseeable future.
(III) The defendant should be referred to the county for further evaluation for potential participation in a county diversion program, if one exists, or to another outpatient treatment program.
(ii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, the defendant has regained competence, the court shall proceed as if a certificate of restoration of competence has been returned pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372.
(iii) If, in the opinion of the department’s expert, there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall proceed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report.
(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:
(A) (i) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.
(ii) A defendant shall first be considered for placement in an outpatient treatment program, a community treatment program, or a diversion program, if any such program is available, unless a court, based upon the recommendation of the community program director or their designee, finds that either the clinical needs of the defendant or the risk to community safety, warrant placement in a State Department of State Hospitals facility.
(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:
(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:
(I) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendant’s mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendant’s mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to their physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and their condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.
(II) Based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist or licensed psychologist offered to the court pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, the defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in the defendant being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendant’s present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.
(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, and based upon the opinion of the psychiatrist offered to the court pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is medically necessary and appropriate in light of their medical condition.
(ii) (I) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medications is appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist.
(II) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, a licensed psychologist has opined that treatment with antipsychotic medication may be appropriate for the defendant, the court shall issue an order authorizing treatment by a licensed psychiatrist on an involuntary basis. That treatment may include the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist.
(III) If the court finds the conditions described in subclause (III) of clause (i) to be true, and if pursuant to the opinion offered to the court pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1369, a psychiatrist has opined that it is appropriate to treat the defendant with antipsychotic medication, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medication as needed, including on an involuntary basis, to be administered under the direction and supervision of a licensed psychiatrist.
(iii) An order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendant’s treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter, including a county jail, shall remain in effect when the defendant returns to county custody pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), or pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 1372, but shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).
(iv) In all cases, the treating hospital, county jail, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of their counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendant’s consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.
(vi) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from their counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.
(vii) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendant’s appearance or behavior that would affect the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients’ rights advocate regarding the defendant’s rights under this section.
(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws their consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.
(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients’ rights advocate. The attorney or patients’ rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendant’s rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for the defendant’s interests at the hearing, review the panel’s final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of their right to judicial review of the panel’s decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:
(I) To be given timely access to the defendant’s records.
(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.
(III) To present evidence at the hearing.
(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.
(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendant’s behalf.
(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.
(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrist’s certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.
(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.
(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.
(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.
(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.
(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judge’s order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.
(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).
(3) (A) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:
(i) The commitment order, which shall include a specification of the charges, an assessment of whether involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications is warranted, and any orders by the court, pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2), authorizing involuntary treatment with antipsychotic medications.
(ii) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).
(iii) (I) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.
(II) If a certificate of restoration of competency was filed with the court pursuant to Section 1372 and the court subsequently rejected the certification, a copy of the court order or minute order rejecting the certification shall be provided. The court order shall include a new computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the defendant’s maximum term of commitment based on the court’s rejection of the certification.
(iv) State summary criminal history information.
(v) Jail classification records for the defendant’s current incarceration.
(vi) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.
(vii) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.
(viii) The community program director’s placement recommendation report.
(ix) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.
(x) Medical records, including jail mental health records.
(B) If a defendant is committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, and the department determines that additional medical or mental health treatment records are needed for continuity of care, any private or public entity holding medical or mental health treatment records of that defendant shall release those records upon receiving a written request from the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days after the request. The private or public entity holding the medical or mental health treatment records shall comply with all applicable federal and state privacy laws prior to disclosure. The State Department of State Hospitals shall not release records obtained during the admission process under this subdivision, pursuant to Section 1798.68 of the Civil Code, or subdivision (b) of Section 5328 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the placement facility of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.
(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals.
(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.
Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.
(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be electronically transferred or taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).
(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendant’s patients’ rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients’ rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.
(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendant’s attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on a petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.
(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving their rapport with the defendant or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the defendant prior to the hearing.
(b) (1) Within 90 days after a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary.
If the defendant is in county custody, the county jail shall provide access to the defendant for purposes of the State Department of State Hospitals conducting an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Based upon this evaluation, the State Department of State Hospitals may make a written report to the court within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a) concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary. If the defendant remains in county custody after the initial 90-day report, the State Department of State Hospitals may conduct an evaluation of the defendant pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and make a written report to the court concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary.
If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report, in writing, to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendant’s progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.
(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The defendant shall be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:
(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.
(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to subparagraph (A).
(C) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification made pursuant to clause (ii) of subparagraph (B), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals.
(2) The reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendant’s progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.
(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to their physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.
(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if the defendant is not treated with antipsychotic medication.
(D) Whether the defendant has a mental disorder for which medications are the only effective treatment.
(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendant’s ability to collaborate with counsel.
(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.
(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.
(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.
(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.
(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine if grounds for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication exist, whether or not an order was issued at the time of commitment, and shall do one of the following:
(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, any order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.
(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, any order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.
(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall determine whether to vacate the order or issue a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a showing of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause.
(D) If the report states a basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication and the court did not issue such order at the time of commitment, the court shall determine whether to issue an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider the opinions in reports submitted pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including any opinions rendered pursuant to Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The court may, upon a finding of good cause, set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). The court shall require witness testimony to occur remotely, including clinical testimony pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4335.2 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In-person witness testimony shall only be allowed upon a court’s finding of good cause.
(E) This paragraph also applies to recommendations submitted pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1372, when a recommendation is included as to whether an order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medications should be extended or issued.
(4) If it is determined by the court that treatment for the defendant’s mental impairment is not being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court, and, if the defendant is not in county custody, returned to the custody of the county. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
(5) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
(c) (1) At the end of two years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendant’s term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court, and custody of the defendant shall be transferred without delay to the committing county and shall remain with the county until further order of the court. The court shall not order the defendant returned to the custody of the State Department of State Hospitals under the same commitment. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.
(2) (A) The medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall provide notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing county’s sheriff that immediate transportation will be needed for the defendant pursuant to paragraph (1).
(B) If a county does not take custody of a defendant committed to the State Department of State Hospitals within 10 calendar days following notification pursuant to subparagraph (A), the county shall be charged the daily rate for a state hospital bed, as established by the State Department of State Hospitals.
(3) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendant’s counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.
(4) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.
(5) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendant’s progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.
(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.
(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).
(f) As used in this chapter, “community program director” means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(g) For the purpose of this section, “secure treatment facility” does not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.
(h) This section does not preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.

SEC. 7.

 Section 1463.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.

SEC. 8.

 Section 1473 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1473.
 (a) A person unlawfully imprisoned or restrained of their liberty, under any pretense, may prosecute a writ of habeas corpus to inquire into the cause of the imprisonment or restraint.
(b) (1) A writ of habeas corpus may be prosecuted for, but not limited to, the following reasons:
(A) False evidence that is material on the issue of guilt or punishment was introduced against a person at a hearing or trial relating to the person’s incarceration.
(B) False physical evidence, believed by a person to be factual, probative, or material on the issue of guilt, which was known by the person at the time of entering a plea of guilty, which was a material factor directly related to the plea of guilty by the person.
(C) (i) New evidence exists that is presented without substantial delay, is admissible, and is sufficiently material and credible that it more likely than not would have changed the outcome of the case.
(ii) For purposes of this section, “new evidence” means evidence that has not previously been presented and heard at trial and has been discovered after trial.
(D) A significant dispute has emerged or further developed in the petitioner’s favor regarding expert medical, scientific, or forensic testimony that was introduced at trial or a hearing and that expert testimony more likely than not affected the outcome of the case.
(i) For purposes of this section, the expert medical, scientific, or forensic testimony includes the expert’s conclusion or the scientific, forensic, or medical facts upon which their opinion is based.
(ii) For purposes of this section, the significant dispute may be as to the reliability or validity of the diagnosis, technique, methods, theories, research, or studies upon which a medical, scientific, or forensic expert based their testimony.
(iii) Under this section, a significant dispute can be established by credible expert testimony or declaration, or by peer reviewed literature showing that experts in the relevant medical, scientific, or forensic community, substantial in number or expertise, have concluded that developments have occurred that undermine the reliability or validity of the diagnosis, technique, methods, theories, research, or studies upon which a medical, scientific, or forensic expert based their testimony.
(iv) In assessing whether a dispute is significant, the court shall give great weight to evidence that a consensus has developed in the relevant medical, scientific, or forensic community undermining the reliability or validity of the diagnosis, technique, methods, theories, research, or studies upon which a medical, scientific, or forensic expert based their testimony or that there is a lack of consensus as to the reliability or validity of the diagnosis, technique, methods, theories, research, or studies upon which a medical, scientific, or forensic expert based their testimony.
(v) The significant dispute must have emerged or further developed within the relevant medical, scientific, or forensic community, which includes the scientific community and all fields of scientific knowledge on which those fields or disciplines rely and shall not be limited to practitioners or proponents of a particular scientific or technical field or discipline.
(vi) If the petitioner makes a prima facie showing that they are entitled to relief, the court shall issue an order to show cause why relief shall not be granted. To obtain relief, all the elements of this subparagraph must be established by a preponderance of the evidence.
(2) For purposes of this subdivision, “false evidence” includes opinions of experts that have either been repudiated by the expert who originally provided the opinion at a hearing or trial or that have been undermined by the state of scientific knowledge or later scientific research or technological advances.
(3) Any allegation that the prosecution knew or should have known of the false nature of the evidence is immaterial to the prosecution of a writ of habeas corpus brought under subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1).
(4) This subdivision does not create additional liabilities, beyond those already recognized, for an expert who repudiates the original opinion provided at a hearing or trial or whose opinion has been undermined by scientific research, technological advancements, or because of a reasonable dispute within the expert’s relevant scientific community as to the validity of the methods, theories, research, or studies upon which the expert based their opinion.
(c) This section does not change the existing procedures for habeas relief.
(d) This section does not limit the grounds for which a writ of habeas corpus may be prosecuted or preclude the use of any other remedies.
(e) Notwithstanding any other law, a writ of habeas corpus may also be prosecuted after judgment has been entered based on evidence that a criminal conviction or sentence was sought, obtained, or imposed in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 745, if that section applies based on the date of judgment as provided in subdivision (j) of Section 745. A petition raising a claim of this nature for the first time, or on the basis of new discovery provided by the state or other new evidence that could not have been previously known by the petitioner with due diligence, shall not be deemed a successive or abusive petition. If the petitioner has a habeas corpus petition pending in state court, but it has not yet been decided, the petitioner may amend the existing petition with a claim that the petitioner’s conviction or sentence was sought, obtained, or imposed in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 745. The petition shall state if the petitioner requests appointment of counsel and the court shall appoint counsel if the petitioner cannot afford counsel and either the petition alleges facts that would establish a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 745 or the State Public Defender requests counsel be appointed. Newly appointed counsel may amend a petition filed before their appointment. The court shall review a petition raising a claim pursuant to Section 745 and shall determine if the petitioner has made a prima facie showing of entitlement to relief. If the petitioner makes a prima facie showing that the petitioner is entitled to relief, the court shall issue an order to show cause why relief shall not be granted and hold an evidentiary hearing, unless the state declines to show cause. The defendant may appear remotely, and the court may conduct the hearing through the use of remote technology, unless counsel indicates that the defendant’s presence in court is needed. If the court determines that the petitioner has not established a prima facie showing of entitlement to relief, the court shall state the factual and legal basis for its conclusion on the record or issue a written order detailing the factual and legal basis for its conclusion.
(f) If the court holds an evidentiary hearing and the petitioner is incarcerated in state prison, the petitioner may choose not to appear for the hearing with a signed or oral waiver on record, or they may appear remotely through the use of remote technology, unless counsel indicates that the defendant’s presence in court is needed.
(g) For purposes of this section, if the district attorney in the county of conviction or the Attorney General concedes or stipulates to a factual or legal basis for habeas relief, there shall be a presumption in favor of granting relief. This presumption may be overcome only if the record before the court contradicts the concession or stipulation or it would lead to the court issuing an order contrary to law.
(h) (1) If after the court grants postconviction relief under this section and the prosecuting agency elects to retry the petitioner, the petitioner’s postconviction counsel may be appointed as counsel or cocounsel to represent the petitioner on the retrial if both of the following requirements are met:
(A) The petitioner and postconviction counsel both agree for postconviction counsel to be appointed.
(B) Postconviction counsel is qualified to handle trials.
(2) Counsel shall be paid under the applicable pay scale for appointed counsel. Otherwise, the court shall appoint other appropriate counsel.

SEC. 9.

 Section 2620 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

2620.
 (a) When it is necessary to have a person imprisoned in the state prison brought before any court to be tried for a felony, or for an examination before a grand jury or magistrate preliminary to trial for a felony, or for the purpose of hearing a motion or other proceeding, to vacate a judgment, an order for the prisoner’s temporary removal from prison, and for the prisoner’s production before the court, grand jury, or magistrate, must be made by the superior court of the county in which action, motion, or examination is pending or by a judge thereof. The order shall be made only upon the affidavit of the district attorney or defense attorney, stating the purpose for which that person is to be brought before the court, grand jury or magistrate or upon the court’s own motion. The order shall be executed by the sheriff of the county in which it shall be made, whose duty it shall be to bring the prisoner before the proper court, grand jury or magistrate, to safely keep the prisoner, and when the prisoner’s presence is no longer required to return the prisoner to the prison from whence the prisoner was taken. The expense of executing such order shall be a proper charge against, and shall be paid by, the county in which the order shall be made.
(b) An order pursuant to subdivision (a) shall recite the purposes for which that person is to be brought before the court, grand jury, or magistrate, and shall be signed by the judge making the order and sealed with the seal of the court. The order must be to the following effect:
County of ____ (as the case may be).
The people of the State of California to the warden of ____:
An order having been made this day by me, that A.B. be produced in the ____ court (or before the grand jury, as the case may be) to be prosecuted or examined for the crime of ____, a felony (or to have that motion heard), you are commanded to deliver the prisoner into the custody of ____ for the purpose of (recite purposes).
Dated this ____ day of ____, 20____.
(c) When a prisoner is removed from a state prison under this section the prisoner shall remain in the constructive custody of the warden thereof. During the prisoner’s absence from the prison, the prisoner may be ordered to appear in other felony proceedings as a defendant or witness in the superior court of the county from which the original order directing removal issued. A copy of the written order directing the prisoner to appear before that court shall be forwarded by the district attorney to the warden of the prison having protective custody of the prisoner.

SEC. 10.

 Section 3058.65 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

3058.65.
 (a) (1) Whenever any person confined in the state prison is serving a term for the conviction of child abuse, pursuant to Section 273a, 273ab, 273d, any sex offense specified as being perpetrated against a minor, or an act of domestic violence, or as ordered by a court, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, with respect to inmates sentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1168 or pursuant to Section 1170, shall notify the following parties that the person is scheduled to be released on parole, or rereleased following a period of confinement pursuant to a parole revocation without a new commitment, as specified in subdivision (b):
(A) The immediate family of the parolee who requests notification and provides the department with a current address.
(B) A county child welfare services agency that requests notification pursuant to Section 16507 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(2) For the purposes of this paragraph, “immediate family of the parolee” means the parents, siblings, and spouse of the parolee.
(b) (1) The notification shall be made by mail at least 60 days prior to the scheduled release date, except as provided in paragraph (2). In all cases, the notification shall include the name of the person who is scheduled to be released, the terms of that person’s parole, whether or not that person is required to register with local law enforcement, and the community in which that person will reside. The notification shall specify the office within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation that has the authority to make the final determination and adjustments regarding parole location decisions.
(2) When notification cannot be provided within the 60 days due to the unanticipated release date change of an inmate as a result of an order from the court, an action by the Board of Parole Hearings, the granting of an administrative appeal, or a finding of not guilty or dismissal of a disciplinary action, that affects the sentence of the inmate, or due to a modification of the department’s decision regarding the community into which the person is scheduled to be released pursuant to paragraph (3), the department shall provide notification to the parties and agencies specified in subdivision (a) as soon as practicable, but in no case less than 24 hours after the final decision is made regarding the location where the parolee will be released.
(3) Those agencies receiving the notice referred to in this subdivision may provide written comment to the board or department regarding the impending release. Agencies that choose to provide written comments shall respond within 30 days prior to the inmate’s scheduled release, unless an agency received less than 60 days’ notice of the impending release, in which case the agency shall respond as soon as practicable prior to the scheduled release. Those comments shall be considered by the board or department which may, based on those comments, modify its decision regarding the community in which the person is scheduled to be released. The board or department shall respond in writing not less than 15 days prior to the scheduled release with a final determination as to whether to adjust the parole location and documenting the basis for its decision, unless the department received comments less than 30 days prior to the impending release, in which case the department shall respond as soon as practicable prior to the scheduled release. The comments shall become a part of the inmate’s file.
(c) In no case shall the notice required by this section be later than the day the person is released on parole.

SEC. 11.

 Section 11226 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

11226.
 (a) If there is reason to believe that a nuisance, as defined in this article, is kept, maintained, or is in existence in any county, the district attorney or county counsel, in the name of the people of the State of California, or the city attorney of an incorporated city or any city and county may, or any citizen of the state resident within the county in their own name may, maintain an action in equity to abate and prevent the nuisance and to perpetually enjoin the person conducting or maintaining it, and the owner, lessee, or agent of the building or place, in or upon which the nuisance exists, from directly or indirectly maintaining or permitting it.
(b) The complaint in the action shall be verified unless filed by the district attorney, county counsel, or the city attorney.

SEC. 12.

 Section 13511.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

13511.5.
 Each applicant for admission to a basic course of training certified by the Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training that includes the carrying and use of firearms, as prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 832 and subdivision (a) of Section 832.3, who is not sponsored by a local or other law enforcement agency, or is not a peace officer employed by a state or local agency, department, or district, shall be required to submit written certification from the Department of Justice pursuant to Sections 11122, 11123, and 11124 that the applicant is eligible to possess, receive, own, and purchase a firearm pursuant to state and federal law.

SEC. 13.

 Section 13519.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

13519.6.
 (a) (1) The commission, in consultation with subject-matter experts, including, but not limited to, law enforcement agencies, civil rights groups, and academic experts, and the Department of Justice, shall develop guidelines and a course of instruction and training for law enforcement officers who are employed as peace officers, or who are not yet employed as a peace officer but are enrolled in a training academy for law enforcement officers, addressing hate crimes. “Hate crimes,” for purposes of this section, has the same meaning as in Section 422.55.
(2) The commission shall consult with the subject-matter experts in paragraph (1) if the guidelines or course of instruction are updated.
(3) The guidelines and course of instruction developed pursuant to this section are not regulations as that term is used in the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 commencing with Section 11340 of Part 1 of Division 3 of the Government Code). This paragraph is declaratory of existing law.
(b) The course shall make maximum use of audio and video communication and other simulation methods and shall include instruction in each of the following:
(1) Indicators of hate crimes.
(2) The impact of these crimes on the victim, the victim’s family, and the community, and the assistance and compensation available to victims.
(3) Knowledge of the laws dealing with hate crimes and the legal rights of, and the remedies available to, victims of hate crimes.
(4) Law enforcement procedures, reporting, and documentation of hate crimes.
(5) Techniques and methods to handle incidents of hate crimes in a noncombative manner.
(6) Multimission criminal extremism, which means the nexus of certain hate crimes, antigovernment extremist crimes, anti-reproductive-rights crimes, and crimes committed in whole or in part because of the victims’ actual or perceived homelessness.
(7) The special problems inherent in some categories of hate crimes, including gender-bias crimes, disability-bias crimes, including those committed against homeless persons with disabilities, anti-immigrant crimes, and anti-Arab and anti-Islamic crimes, and techniques and methods to handle these special problems.
(8) Preparation for, and response to, possible future anti-Arab, anti-Middle Eastern, and anti-Islamic hate crimewaves, and any other future hate crime waves that the Attorney General determines are likely.
(c) The guidelines developed by the commission shall incorporate the procedures and techniques specified in subdivision (b) and shall include the model hate crimes policy framework for use by law enforcement agencies in adopting a hate crimes policy pursuant to Section 422.87. The elements of the model hate crimes policy framework shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(1) A message from the law enforcement agency’s chief executive officer to the agency’s officers and staff concerning the importance of hate crime laws and the agency’s commitment to enforcement.
(2) The definition of “hate crime” in Section 422.55.
(3) References to hate crime statutes including Section 422.6.
(4) A title-by-title specific protocol that agency personnel are required to follow, including, but not limited to, the following:
(A) Preventing and preparing for likely hate crimes by, among other things, establishing contact with persons and communities who are likely targets, and forming and cooperating with community hate crime prevention and response networks.
(B) Responding to reports of hate crimes, including reports of hate crimes committed under the color of authority.
(C) Accessing assistance, by, among other things, activating the Department of Justice hate crime rapid response protocol when necessary.
(D) Providing victim assistance and followup, including community followup.
(E) Reporting.
(5) A list of all requirements that Section 422.87 or any other law mandates a law enforcement agency to include in its hate crime policy.
(d) (1) The course of training leading to the basic certificate issued by the commission shall include the course of instruction described in subdivision (a).
(2) Every state law enforcement and correctional agency, and every local law enforcement and correctional agency to the extent that this requirement does not create a state-mandated local program cost, shall provide its peace officers with the basic course of instruction as revised pursuant to the act that amends this section in the 2003–04 session of the Legislature, beginning with officers who have not previously received the training. Correctional agencies shall adapt the course as necessary.
(e) (1) The commission shall, subject to an appropriation of funds for this purpose in the annual Budget Act or other statute, for any basic course, incorporate the November 2017 video course developed by the commission entitled “Hate Crimes: Identification and Investigation,” or any successor video, into the basic course curriculum.
(2) The commission shall make the video course described in paragraph (1) available to stream via the learning portal.
(3) Each peace officer shall, within one year of the commission making the course available to stream via the learning portal, be required to complete the November 2017 video facilitated course developed by the commission entitled “Hate Crimes: Identification and Investigation,” the course identified in paragraph (4), or any other commission-certified hate crimes course via the learning portal or in-person instruction.
(4) The commission shall develop and periodically update an interactive course of instruction and training for in-service peace officers on the topic of hate crimes and make the course available via the learning portal. The course shall cover the fundamentals of hate crime law and preliminary investigation of hate crime incidents, and shall include updates on recent changes in the law, hate crime trends, and best enforcement practices.
(5) The commission shall require the course described in paragraph (3) to be taken by in-service peace officers every six years.
(f) As used in this section, “peace officer” means any person designated as a peace officer by Section 830.1 or 830.2.

SEC. 14.

 Section 11500 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

11500.
 (a) (1) It shall be unlawful for any person to act as an automobile dismantler without first having an established place of business that meets the requirements set forth in Section 11514 and without first having procured a license or temporary permit issued by the department, or when such license or temporary permit has been canceled, suspended, revoked, invalidated, expired, or the terms and conditions of an agreement effected pursuant to Section 11509.1 have not been fulfilled. A violation of this subdivision is a misdemeanor, and is subject to the penalties described in paragraph (2).
(2) Notwithstanding Section 42002, a person convicted of a first violation of subdivision (a) for any reason other than described in paragraph (3) shall be punished by a fine of not less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250). A person convicted of a second separate violation of subdivision (a) for this reason shall be punished by a fine of not less than five hundred dollars ($500). A person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of subdivision (a) for this reason shall be punished by a fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000).
(3) A person who violates subdivision (a) due to possessing nine or more catalytic converters that have been cut from a vehicle pursuant to Section 220 is, for a first violation, guilty of an infraction punishable by a fine of not more than one hundred dollars ($100). A person convicted of a second separate violation of subdivision (a) for this reason is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250). A person convicted of a third separate violation of subdivision (a) for this reason is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not less than five hundred dollars ($500). A person convicted of a fourth or subsequent violation of subdivision (a) for this reason is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by a fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000).
(b) (1) A building or place used for the purpose of automobile dismantling in violation of subdivision (a) is a public nuisance subject to being enjoined, abated, and prevented, and for which damages may be recovered by any public body or officer.
(2) As used in this section, “public body” means any state agency, county, city, district, or any other political subdivision of the state.

SEC. 15.

 Any section of any act enacted by the Legislature during the 2024 calendar year that takes effect on or before January 1, 2025, and that amends, amends and renumbers, adds, repeals and adds, or repeals a section that is amended, amended and renumbered, added, repealed and added, or repealed by this act, shall prevail over this act, whether the act is enacted before, or subsequent to, the enactment of this act.