4013.

 (a) Any facility licensed by the board shall join the board’s email notification list within 60 days of obtaining a license or at the time of license renewal.

(b) Any facility licensed by the board shall update its email address with the board’s email notification list within 30 days of a change in the facility’s email address.

(c) An owner of two or more facilities licensed by the board may comply with subdivisions (a) and (b) by subscribing a single email address to the board’s email notification list, where the owner maintains an electronic notice system within all of its licensed facilities that, upon receipt of an email notification from the board, immediately transmits electronic notice of the same notification to all of its licensed facilities. If an owner chooses to comply with this section by using such an electronic notice system, the owner shall register the electronic notice system with the board by July 1, 2011, or within 60 days of initial licensure, whichever is later, informing the board of the single email address to be utilized by the owner, describing the electronic notice system, and listing all facilities to which immediate notice will be provided. The owner shall update its email address with the board’s email notification list within 30 days of any change in the owner’s email address.

(d) (1) Each pharmacist, intern pharmacist, pharmacy technician, designated representative, and designated representative-3PL licensed in this state shall join the board’s email notification list within 60 days of obtaining a license or at the time of license renewal.

(2) Each pharmacist, intern pharmacist, pharmacy technician, designated representative, and designated representative-3PL licensed in this state shall update his or her email address with the board’s email notification list within 30 days of a change in the licensee’s email address.

(3) The email address provided by a licensee shall not be posted on the board’s online license verification system.

(4) The board shall, with each renewal application, remind licensees of their obligation to report and keep current their email address with the board’s email notification list.

(5) This subdivision shall become operative on July 1, 2017.

4316.

 (a) The board, through its executive officer, is authorized to issue a cease and desist order for operating any facility under this chapter that requires licensure or for practicing any activity under this chapter that requires licensure without obtaining that licensure.

(b) Whenever the board issues a cease and desist order pursuant to subdivision (a), the board shall immediately issue the facility a notice setting forth the acts or omissions with which it is charged, specifying the pertinent code section or sections and any regulations.

(c) The order shall provide that the facility, within 15 days of receipt of the notice, may request a hearing before the president of the board to contest the cease and desist order. Consideration of the facility’s contest of the cease and desist order shall comply with the requirements of Section 11425.10 of the Government Code. The hearing shall be held no later than five days from the date the request of the owner is received by the board. The president shall render a written decision within five days of the hearing. In the absence of the president of the board, the vice president of the board may conduct the hearing permitted by this subdivision. Review of the decision of the president of the board may be sought by the owner or person in possession or control of the facility pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

4980.09.

 (a) (1) The title “marriage and family therapist intern” or “marriage and family therapist registered intern” is hereby renamed “associate marriage and family therapist” or “registered associate marriage and family therapist,” respectively. Any reference in statute or regulation to a “marriage and family therapist intern” or “marriage and family therapist registered intern” shall be deemed a reference to an “associate marriage and family therapist” or “registered associate marriage and family therapist.”

(2) Any reference in this chapter to the term “intern” means “associate.” Any reference in statute or regulation to the abbreviation “MFTI” means an “AMFT.”

(b) This section shall not be construed to expand or constrict the scope of practice of a person licensed or registered pursuant to this chapter.

4980.44.

 An unlicensed associate marriage and family therapist employed under this chapter shall comply with the following requirements:

(a) Possess, at a minimum, a master’s degree as specified in Section 4980.36 or 4980.37, as applicable.

(b) Register with the board prior to performing any duties, except as otherwise provided in subdivision (h) of Section 4980.43.

(c) Prior to performing any professional services, inform each client or patient that he or she is an unlicensed registered associate marriage and family therapist, provide his or her registration number and the name of his or her employer, and indicate whether he or she is under the supervision of a licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed psychologist, or a licensed physician and surgeon certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(d) (1) Any advertisement by or on behalf of a registered associate marriage and family therapist shall include, at a minimum, all of the following information:

(A) That he or she is a registered associate marriage and family therapist.

(B) The associate’s registration number.

(C) The name of his or her employer.

(D) That he or she is supervised by a licensed person.

(2) The abbreviation “AMFT” shall not be used in an advertisement unless the title “registered associate marriage and family therapist” appears in the advertisement.

4980.72.

 (a) This section applies to a person who is licensed outside of California and applies for licensure on or after January 1, 2016.

(b) The board may issue a license to a person who, at the time of submitting an application for a license pursuant to this chapter, holds a valid license in good standing issued by a board of marriage counselor examiners, board of marriage and family therapists, or corresponding authority, of any state or country, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The applicant’s education is substantially equivalent, as defined in Section 4980.79. The applicant’s degree title need not be identical to that required by Section 4980.36 or 4980.37.

(2) The applicant complies with Section 4980.76, if applicable.

(3) The applicant’s supervised experience is substantially equivalent to that required for a license under this chapter. The board shall consider hours of experience obtained outside of California during the six-year period immediately preceding the date the applicant initially obtained the license described above. If the applicant has less than 3,000 hours of qualifying supervised experience, time actively licensed as a marriage and family therapist shall be accepted at a rate of 100 hours per month, up to a maximum of 1,200 hours, if the applicant’s degree meets the practicum requirement described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 4980.79 without exemptions or remediation.

(4) The applicant passes the California law and ethics examination.

(5) The applicant passes a clinical examination designated by the board. An applicant who obtained his or her license or registration under another jurisdiction may apply for licensure with the board without taking the clinical examination if both of the following conditions are met:

(A) The applicant obtained a passing score on the clinical licensing examination set forth in regulation as accepted by the board.

(B) The applicant’s license or registration in that jurisdiction is active, in good standing at the time of his or her application, and is not revoked, suspended, surrendered, denied, or otherwise restricted or encumbered.

4984.4.

 A license that is not renewed within three years after its expiration shall not be renewed, restored, reinstated, or reissued; however, the former licensee may apply for and obtain a new license if the following criteria are satisfied:

(a) No fact, circumstance, or condition exists that, if the license were issued, would constitute grounds for its revocation or suspension.

(b) He or she submits an application for licensure and the fee for that application.

(c) He or she takes and passes the current licensing examinations.

(d) He or she submits the fee for initial license issuance.

(e) He or she complies with the fingerprint requirements established by board regulation.

4984.7.

 (a) The board shall assess the following fees relating to the licensure of marriage and family therapists:

(1) The application fee for an associate registration shall be seventy-five dollars ($75).

(2) The renewal fee for an associate registration shall be seventy-five dollars ($75).

(3) The fee for the application for licensure shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(4) The fee for the clinical examination shall be one hundred dollars ($100). The fee for the California law and ethics examination shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(A) An applicant who fails to appear for an examination, after having been scheduled to take the examination, shall forfeit the examination fee.

(B) The amount of the examination fees shall be based on the actual cost to the board of developing, purchasing, and grading each examination and the actual cost to the board of administering each examination. The examination fees shall be adjusted periodically by regulation to reflect the actual costs incurred by the board.

(5) The fee for rescoring an examination shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(6) The fee for issuance of an initial license shall be a maximum of one hundred eighty dollars ($180).

(7) The fee for license renewal shall be a maximum of one hundred eighty dollars ($180).

(8) The fee for inactive license renewal shall be a maximum of ninety dollars ($90).

(9) The renewal delinquency fee shall be a maximum of ninety dollars ($90). A person who permits his or her license to expire is subject to the delinquency fee.

(10) The fee for issuance of a replacement registration, license, or certificate shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(11) The fee for issuance of a certificate or letter of good standing shall be twenty-five dollars ($25).

(12) The fee for issuance of a retired license shall be forty dollars ($40).

(b) With regard to license, examination, and other fees, the board shall establish fee amounts at or below the maximum amounts specified in this chapter.

4984.9.

 A licensee or registrant shall give written notice to the board of a name change, giving both the old and new names. The written notice shall be submitted to the board within 30 days of the issuance of a new government-issued photographic identification. The licensee or registrant shall certify the information by signing a statement under penalty of perjury. A copy of both of the following documents evidencing the change shall be submitted with the notice:

(a) A current government-issued photographic identification.

(b) The legal document authorizing the name change, such as a court order or a marriage certificate.

4989.46.

 A licensee shall give written notice to the board of a name change, providing both the old and new names. The written notice shall be submitted to the board within 30 days of the issuance of a new government-issued photographic identification. The licensee shall certify the information is correct by signing a statement under penalty of perjury. A copy of both of the following documents evidencing the change shall be submitted with the notice:

(a) A current government-issued photographic identification.

(b) The legal document authorizing the name change, such as a court order or a marriage certificate.

4992.8.

 A licensee or registrant shall give written notice to the board of a name change, giving both the old and new names. The written notice shall be submitted to the board within 30 days of the issuance of a new government-issued photographic identification. The licensee or registrant shall certify the information is correct by signing a statement under penalty of perjury. A copy of both of the following documents evidencing the change shall be submitted with the notice:

(a) A current government-issued photographic identification.

(b) The legal document authorizing the name change, such as a court order or a marriage certificate.

4996.3.

 (a) The board shall assess the following fees relating to the licensure of clinical social workers:

(1) The application fee for registration as an associate clinical social worker shall be seventy-five dollars ($75).

(2) The fee for renewal of an associate clinical social worker registration shall be seventy-five dollars ($75).

(3) The fee for application for licensure shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(4) The fee for the board-administered clinical examination, if the board chooses to adopt this examination in regulations, shall be one hundred dollars ($100). The fee for the California law and ethics examination shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(A) An applicant who fails to appear for an examination, after having been scheduled to take the examination, shall forfeit the examination fees.

(B) The amount of the examination fees shall be based on the actual cost to the board of developing, purchasing, and grading each examination and the actual cost to the board of administering each examination. The written examination fees shall be adjusted periodically by regulation to reflect the actual costs incurred by the board.

(5) The fee for rescoring an examination shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(6) The fee for issuance of an initial license shall be a maximum of one hundred fifty-five dollars ($155).

(7) The fee for license renewal shall be a maximum of one hundred fifty-five dollars ($155).

(8) The fee for inactive license renewal shall be a maximum of seventy-seven dollars and fifty cents ($77.50).

(9) The renewal delinquency fee shall be a maximum of seventy-five dollars ($75). A person who permits his or her license to expire is subject to the delinquency fee.

(10) The fee for issuance of a replacement registration, license, or certificate shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(11) The fee for issuance of a certificate or letter of good standing shall be twenty-five dollars ($25).

(12) The fee for issuance of a retired license shall be forty dollars ($40).

(b) With regard to license, examination, and other fees, the board shall establish fee amounts at or below the maximum amounts specified in this chapter.

4996.6.

 (a) Licenses issued under this chapter shall expire no more than 24 months after the issue date. The expiration date of the original license shall be set by the board.

(b) To renew an unexpired license, the licensee shall, on or before the expiration date of the license, complete the following actions:

(1) Apply for a renewal on a form prescribed by the board.

(2) Pay a two-year renewal fee prescribed by the board.

(3) Certify compliance with the continuing education requirements set forth in Section 4996.22.

(4) Notify the board whether he or she has been convicted, as defined in Section 490, of a misdemeanor or felony, or whether any disciplinary action has been taken by any regulatory or licensing board in this or any other state, subsequent to the licensee’s last renewal.

(c) To renew an expired license within three years of its expiration, the licensee shall, as a condition precedent to renewal, complete all of the actions described in subdivision (b) and pay a delinquency fee.

(d) A license that is not renewed within three years after its expiration may not be renewed, restored, reinstated, or reissued thereafter; however, the former licensee may apply for and obtain a new license if he or she satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) No fact, circumstance, or condition exists that, if the license were issued, would justify its revocation or suspension.

(2) He or she submits an application for licensure.

(3) He or she takes and passes the current licensing examinations.

(4) He or she submits the licensure application fees and the fee for initial license issuance.

(5) He or she complies with the fingerprint requirements established by board regulation.

4996.17.

 (a) (1) Experience gained outside of California shall be accepted toward the licensure requirements if it is substantially the equivalent of the requirements of this chapter.

(2) Commencing January 1, 2014, an applicant with education gained outside of California shall complete an 18-hour course in California law and professional ethics. The content of the course shall include, but not be limited to, the following: advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous patients, psychotherapist-patient privilege, recordkeeping, patient access to records, state and federal laws related to confidentiality of patient health information, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, therapist disclosures to patients, differences in legal and ethical standards in different types of work settings, and licensing law and process.

(b) The board may issue a license to any person who, at the time of application, holds a valid clinical social work license issued by a board of clinical social work examiners or corresponding authority of any state, if the person passes, or has passed, the licensing examinations as specified in Section 4996.1 and pays the required fees. Issuance of the license is conditioned upon all of the following:

(1) The applicant has supervised experience that is substantially the equivalent of that required by this chapter. If the applicant has less than 3,200 hours of qualifying supervised experience, time actively licensed as a clinical social worker shall be accepted at a rate of 100 hours per month up to a maximum of 1,200 hours.

(2) Completion of the following coursework or training in or out of this state:

(A) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(B) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training or coursework in human sexuality as specified in Section 25, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(C) A minimum of 15 contact hours of training or coursework in alcoholism and other chemical substance dependency, as specified by regulation.

(D) A minimum of 15 contact hours of coursework or training in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies.

(3) Commencing January 1, 2014, completion of an 18-hour course in California law and professional ethics. The content of the course shall include, but not be limited to, the following: advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous patients, psychotherapist-patient privilege, recordkeeping, patient access to records, state and federal laws related to confidentiality of patient health information, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, therapist disclosures to patients, differences in legal and ethical standards in different types of work settings, and licensing law and process.

(4) The applicant’s license is in good standing and is not suspended, revoked, restricted, sanctioned, or voluntarily surrendered in any state.

(5) The applicant is not currently under investigation in any other state, and has not been charged with an offense for any act substantially related to the practice of social work by any public agency, entered into any consent agreement or been subject to an administrative decision that contains conditions placed by an agency upon an applicant’s professional conduct or practice, including any voluntary surrender of license, or been the subject of an adverse judgment resulting from the practice of social work that the board determines constitutes evidence of a pattern of incompetence or negligence.

(6) The applicant shall provide a certification from each state where he or she holds a license pertaining to licensure, disciplinary action, and complaints pending.

(7) The applicant is not subject to denial of licensure under Section 480, 4992.3, 4992.35, or 4992.36.

(c) The board may issue a license to any person who, at the time of application, holds a valid clinical social work license issued by a board of clinical social work examiners or a corresponding authority of any state, if the person has held that license for at least four years immediately preceding the date of application, the person passes, or has passed, the licensing examinations as specified in Section 4996.1, and the person pays the required fees. Issuance of the license is conditioned upon all of the following:

(1) Completion of the following coursework or training in or out of state:

(A) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(B) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training or coursework in human sexuality as specified in Section 25, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(C) A minimum of 15 contact hours of training or coursework in alcoholism and other chemical substance dependency, as specified by regulation.

(D) A minimum of 15 contact hours of coursework or training in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies.

(2) Commencing January 1, 2014, completion of an 18-hour course in California law and professional ethics. The content of the course shall include, but not be limited to, the following: advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous patients, psychotherapist-patient privilege, recordkeeping, patient access to records, state and federal laws related to confidentiality of patient health information, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, therapist disclosures to patients, differences in legal and ethical standards in different types of work settings, and licensing law and process.

(3) The applicant has been licensed as a clinical social worker continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.

(4) The applicant’s license is in good standing and is not suspended, revoked, restricted, sanctioned, or voluntarily surrendered in any state.

(5) The applicant is not currently under investigation in any other state, and has not been charged with an offense for any act substantially related to the practice of social work by any public agency, entered into any consent agreement or been subject to an administrative decision that contains conditions placed by an agency upon an applicant’s professional conduct or practice, including any voluntary surrender of license, or been the subject of an adverse judgment resulting from the practice of social work that the board determines constitutes evidence of a pattern of incompetence or negligence.

(6) The applicant provides a certification from each state where he or she holds a license pertaining to licensure, disciplinary action, and complaints pending.

(7) The applicant is not subject to denial of licensure under Section 480, 4992.3, 4992.35, or 4992.36.

(d) An applicant who obtained his or her license or registration under another jurisdiction may apply for licensure with the board without taking the clinical examination specified in Section 4996.1 if both of the following conditions are met:

(1) The applicant obtained a passing score on the clinical licensing examination set forth in regulation as accepted by the board.

(2) The applicant’s license or registration in that jurisdiction is active, in good standing at the time of his or her application, and is not revoked, suspended, surrendered, denied, or otherwise restricted or encumbered.

4999.12.5.

 (a) (1) The title “professional clinical counselor intern” or “professional clinical counselor registered intern” is hereby renamed “associate professional clinical counselor” or “registered associate professional clinical counselor,” respectively. Any reference in any statute or regulation to a “professional clinical counselor intern” or “professional clinical counselor registered intern” shall be deemed a reference to an “associate professional clinical counselor” or “registered associate professional clinical counselor.”

(2) Any reference in this chapter to the term “intern” means “associate.”

(b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to expand or constrict the scope of practice of a person licensed or registered pursuant to this chapter.

4999.32.

 (a) This section shall apply to applicants for licensure or registration who begin graduate study before August 1, 2012, and complete that study on or before December 31, 2018. Those applicants may alternatively qualify under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 4999.33.

(b) To qualify for licensure or registration, applicants shall possess a master’s or doctoral degree that is counseling or psychotherapy in content and that meets the requirements of this section, obtained from an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. For purposes of this subdivision, a degree is “counseling or psychotherapy in content” if it contains the supervised practicum or field study experience described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) and, except as provided in subdivision (d), the coursework in the core content areas listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c).

(c) The degree described in subdivision (b) shall contain not less than 48 graduate semester or 72 graduate quarter units of instruction, which shall, except as provided in subdivision (d), include all of the following:

(1) The equivalent of at least three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of graduate study in each of the following core content areas:

(A) Counseling and psychotherapeutic theories and techniques, including the counseling process in a multicultural society, an orientation to wellness and prevention, counseling theories to assist in selection of appropriate counseling interventions, models of counseling consistent with current professional research and practice, development of a personal model of counseling, and multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, and disasters.

(B) Human growth and development across the lifespan, including normal and abnormal behavior and an understanding of developmental crises, disability, psychopathology, and situational and environmental factors that affect both normal and abnormal behavior.

(C) Career development theories and techniques, including career development decisionmaking models and interrelationships among and between work, family, and other life roles and factors, including the role of multicultural issues in career development.

(D) Group counseling theories and techniques, including principles of group dynamics, group process components, developmental stage theories, therapeutic factors of group work, group leadership styles and approaches, pertinent research and literature, group counseling methods, and evaluation of effectiveness.

(E) Assessment, appraisal, and testing of individuals, including basic concepts of standardized and nonstandardized testing and other assessment techniques, norm-referenced and criterion-referenced assessment, statistical concepts, social and cultural factors related to assessment and evaluation of individuals and groups, and ethical strategies for selecting, administering, and interpreting assessment instruments and techniques in counseling.

(F) Multicultural counseling theories and techniques, including counselors’ roles in developing cultural self-awareness, identity development, promoting cultural social justice, individual and community strategies for working with and advocating for diverse populations, and counselors’ roles in eliminating biases and prejudices, and processes of intentional and unintentional oppression and discrimination.

(G) Principles of the diagnostic process, including differential diagnosis, and the use of current diagnostic tools, such as the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, the impact of co-occurring substance use disorders or medical psychological disorders, established diagnostic criteria for mental or emotional disorders, and the treatment modalities and placement criteria within the continuum of care.

(H) Research and evaluation, including studies that provide an understanding of research methods, statistical analysis, the use of research to inform evidence-based practice, the importance of research in advancing the profession of counseling, and statistical methods used in conducting research, needs assessment, and program evaluation.

(I) Professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling, including professional ethical standards and legal considerations, licensing law and process, regulatory laws that delineate the profession’s scope of practice, counselor-client privilege, confidentiality, the client dangerous to self or others, treatment of minors with or without parental consent, relationship between practitioner’s sense of self and human values, functions and relationships with other human service providers, strategies for collaboration, and advocacy processes needed to address institutional and social barriers that impede access, equity, and success for clients.

(2) In addition to the course requirements described in paragraph (1), a minimum of 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of advanced coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues, special populations, application of counseling constructs, assessment and treatment planning, clinical interventions, therapeutic relationships, psychopathology, or other clinical topics.

(3) Not less than six semester units or nine quarter units of supervised practicum or field study experience that involves direct client contact in a clinical setting that provides a range of professional clinical counseling experience, including the following:

(A) Applied psychotherapeutic techniques.

(B) Assessment.

(C) Diagnosis.

(D) Prognosis.

(E) Treatment.

(F) Issues of development, adjustment, and maladjustment.

(G) Health and wellness promotion.

(H) Other recognized counseling interventions.

(I) A minimum of 150 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.

(d) (1) (A) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than two of the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) may satisfy those deficiencies by successfully completing post-master’s or postdoctoral degree coursework at an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12.

(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), no applicant shall be deficient in the required areas of study specified in subparagraphs (E) or (G) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c).

(2) Coursework taken to meet deficiencies in the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) shall be the equivalent of three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of study.

(3) The board shall make the final determination as to whether a degree meets all requirements, including, but not limited to, course requirements, regardless of accreditation.

(e) In addition to the degree described in this section, or as part of that degree, an applicant shall complete the following coursework or training prior to registration as an associate:

(1) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in alcoholism and other chemical substance abuse dependency, as specified by regulation.

(2) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training or coursework in human sexuality as specified in Section 25, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(3) A two semester unit or three quarter unit survey course in psychopharmacology.

(4) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies, including knowledge of community resources, cultural factors, and same gender abuse dynamics.

(5) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28 and any regulations adopted thereunder.

(6) A minimum of 18 contact hours of instruction in California law and professional ethics for professional clinical counselors that includes, but is not limited to, instruction in advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous clients, psychotherapist-client privilege, recordkeeping, client access to records, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, therapist disclosures to clients, and state and federal laws related to confidentiality of patient health information. When coursework in a master’s or doctoral degree program is acquired to satisfy this requirement, it shall be considered as part of the 48 semester unit or 72 quarter unit requirement in subdivision (c).

(7) A minimum of 10 contact hours of instruction in aging and long-term care, which may include, but is not limited to, the biological, social, and psychological aspects of aging. On and after January 1, 2012, this coursework shall include instruction on the assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder and dependent adult abuse and neglect.

(8) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in crisis or trauma counseling, including multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, or disasters, and brief, intermediate, and long-term approaches.

(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2019, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before January 1, 2019, deletes or extends that date.

4999.33.

 (a) This section shall apply to the following:

(1) Applicants for licensure or registration who begin graduate study before August 1, 2012, and do not complete that study on or before December 31, 2018.

(2) Applicants for licensure or registration who begin graduate study before August 1, 2012, and who graduate from a degree program that meets the requirements of this section.

(3) Applicants for licensure or registration who begin graduate study on or after August 1, 2012.

(b) To qualify for licensure or registration, applicants shall possess a master’s or doctoral degree that is counseling or psychotherapy in content and that meets the requirements of this section, obtained from an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. For purposes of this subdivision, a degree is “counseling or psychotherapy in content” if it contains the supervised practicum or field study experience described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) and, except as provided in subdivision (f), the coursework in the core content areas listed in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c).

(c) The degree described in subdivision (b) shall contain not less than 60 graduate semester units or 90 graduate quarter units of instruction, which shall, except as provided in subdivision (f), include all of the following:

(1) The equivalent of at least three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of graduate study in all of the following core content areas:

(A) Counseling and psychotherapeutic theories and techniques, including the counseling process in a multicultural society, an orientation to wellness and prevention, counseling theories to assist in selection of appropriate counseling interventions, models of counseling consistent with current professional research and practice, development of a personal model of counseling, and multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, and disasters.

(B) Human growth and development across the lifespan, including normal and abnormal behavior and an understanding of developmental crises, disability, psychopathology, and situational and environmental factors that affect both normal and abnormal behavior.

(C) Career development theories and techniques, including career development decisionmaking models and interrelationships among and between work, family, and other life roles and factors, including the role of multicultural issues in career development.

(D) Group counseling theories and techniques, including principles of group dynamics, group process components, group developmental stage theories, therapeutic factors of group work, group leadership styles and approaches, pertinent research and literature, group counseling methods, and evaluation of effectiveness.

(E) Assessment, appraisal, and testing of individuals, including basic concepts of standardized and nonstandardized testing and other assessment techniques, norm-referenced and criterion-referenced assessment, statistical concepts, social and cultural factors related to assessment and evaluation of individuals and groups, and ethical strategies for selecting, administering, and interpreting assessment instruments and techniques in counseling.

(F) Multicultural counseling theories and techniques, including counselors’ roles in developing cultural self-awareness, identity development, promoting cultural social justice, individual and community strategies for working with and advocating for diverse populations, and counselors’ roles in eliminating biases and prejudices, and processes of intentional and unintentional oppression and discrimination.

(G) Principles of the diagnostic process, including differential diagnosis, and the use of current diagnostic tools, such as the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, the impact of co-occurring substance use disorders or medical psychological disorders, established diagnostic criteria for mental or emotional disorders, and the treatment modalities and placement criteria within the continuum of care.

(H) Research and evaluation, including studies that provide an understanding of research methods, statistical analysis, the use of research to inform evidence-based practice, the importance of research in advancing the profession of counseling, and statistical methods used in conducting research, needs assessment, and program evaluation.

(I) Professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling, including California law and professional ethics for professional clinical counselors, professional ethical standards and legal considerations, licensing law and process, regulatory laws that delineate the profession’s scope of practice, counselor-client privilege, confidentiality, the client dangerous to self or others, treatment of minors with or without parental consent, relationship between practitioner’s sense of self and human values, functions and relationships with other human service providers, strategies for collaboration, and advocacy processes needed to address institutional and social barriers that impede access, equity, and success for clients.

(J) Psychopharmacology, including the biological bases of behavior, basic classifications, indications, and contraindications of commonly prescribed psychopharmacological medications so that appropriate referrals can be made for medication evaluations and so that the side effects of those medications can be identified.

(K) Addictions counseling, including substance abuse, co-occurring disorders, and addiction, major approaches to identification, evaluation, treatment, and prevention of substance abuse and addiction, legal and medical aspects of substance abuse, populations at risk, the role of support persons, support systems, and community resources.

(L) Crisis or trauma counseling, including crisis theory; multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, or disasters; cognitive, affective, behavioral, and neurological effects associated with trauma; brief, intermediate, and long-term approaches; and assessment strategies for clients in crisis and principles of intervention for individuals with mental or emotional disorders during times of crisis, emergency, or disaster.

(M) Advanced counseling and psychotherapeutic theories and techniques, including the application of counseling constructs, assessment and treatment planning, clinical interventions, therapeutic relationships, psychopathology, or other clinical topics.

(2) In addition to the course requirements described in paragraph (1), 15 semester units or 22.5 quarter units of advanced coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues or special populations.

(3) Not less than six semester units or nine quarter units of supervised practicum or field study experience that involves direct client contact in a clinical setting that provides a range of professional clinical counseling experience, including the following:

(A) Applied psychotherapeutic techniques.

(B) Assessment.

(C) Diagnosis.

(D) Prognosis.

(E) Treatment.

(F) Issues of development, adjustment, and maladjustment.

(G) Health and wellness promotion.

(H) Professional writing including documentation of services, treatment plans, and progress notes.

(I) How to find and use resources.

(J) Other recognized counseling interventions.

(K) A minimum of 280 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.

(d) The 60 graduate semester units or 90 graduate quarter units of instruction required pursuant to subdivision (c) shall, in addition to meeting the requirements of subdivision (c), include instruction in all of the following:

(1) The understanding of human behavior within the social context of socioeconomic status and other contextual issues affecting social position.

(2) The understanding of human behavior within the social context of a representative variety of the cultures found within California.

(3) Cultural competency and sensitivity, including a familiarity with the racial, cultural, linguistic, and ethnic backgrounds of persons living in California.

(4) An understanding of the effects of socioeconomic status on treatment and available resources.

(5) Multicultural development and cross-cultural interaction, including experiences of race, ethnicity, class, spirituality, sexual orientation, gender, and disability and their incorporation into the psychotherapeutic process.

(6) Case management, systems of care for the severely mentally ill, public and private services for the severely mentally ill, community resources for victims of abuse, disaster and trauma response, advocacy for the severely mentally ill, and collaborative treatment. The instruction required in this paragraph may be provided either in credit level coursework or through extension programs offered by the degree-granting institution.

(7) Human sexuality, including the study of the physiological, psychological, and social cultural variables associated with sexual behavior, gender identity, and the assessment and treatment of psychosexual dysfunction.

(8) Spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, intervention strategies, and same gender abuse dynamics.

(9) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting, as specified in Section 28, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(10) Aging and long-term care, including biological, social, cognitive, and psychological aspects of aging. This coursework shall include instruction on the assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder and dependent adult abuse and neglect.

(e) A degree program that qualifies for licensure under this section shall do all of the following:

(1) Integrate the principles of mental health recovery-oriented care and methods of service delivery in recovery-oriented practice environments.

(2) Integrate an understanding of various cultures and the social and psychological implications of socioeconomic position.

(3) Provide the opportunity for students to meet with various consumers and family members of consumers of mental health services to enhance understanding of their experience of mental illness, treatment, and recovery.

(f) (1) (A) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than three of the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) may satisfy those deficiencies by successfully completing post-master’s or postdoctoral degree coursework at an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12.

(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), no applicant shall be deficient in the required areas of study specified in subparagraphs (E) or (G) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c).

(2) Coursework taken to meet deficiencies in the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) shall be the equivalent of three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of study.

(3) The board shall make the final determination as to whether a degree meets all requirements, including, but not limited to, course requirements, regardless of accreditation.

4999.42.

 To qualify for registration as an associate, an applicant shall have all of the following qualifications:

(a) The applicant shall have earned a master’s or doctoral degree as specified in Section 4999.32 or 4999.33, as applicable. An applicant whose education qualifies him or her under Section 4999.32 shall also have completed the coursework or training specified in subdivision (e) of Section 4999.32.

(b) The applicant shall not have committed acts or crimes constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480.

(c) The board shall not issue a registration to any person who has been convicted of a crime in this or another state or in a territory of the United States that involves sexual abuse of children or who is required to register pursuant to Section 290 of the Penal Code or the equivalent in another state or territory.

4999.53.

 (a) Effective January 1, 2016, a registrant or an applicant for licensure as a professional clinical counselor shall pass the following examinations as prescribed by the board:

(1) A California law and ethics examination.

(2) A clinical examination administered by the board, or the National Clinical Mental Health Counselor Examination if the board finds that this examination meets the prevailing standards for validation and use of the licensing and certification tests in California.

(b) Upon registration with the board, an associate professional clinical counselor shall, within the first year of registration, take an examination on California law and ethics.

(c) A registrant or an applicant for licensure may take the clinical examination or the National Clinical Mental Health Counselor Examination, as established by the board through regulation, only upon meeting all of the following requirements:

(1) Completion of all required supervised work experience.

(2) Completion of all education requirements.

(3) Passage of the California law and ethics examination.

(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2016.

4999.60.

 (a) This section applies to persons who are licensed outside of California and apply for licensure on or after January 1, 2016.

(b) The board may issue a license to a person who, at the time of submitting an application for a license pursuant to this chapter, holds a valid license in good standing as a professional clinical counselor, or other counseling license that allows the applicant to independently provide clinical mental health services, in another jurisdiction of the United States, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The applicant’s education is substantially equivalent, as defined in Section 4999.63.

(2) The applicant complies with subdivision (c) of Section 4999.40, if applicable.

(3) The applicant’s supervised experience is substantially equivalent to that required for a license under this chapter. The board shall consider hours of experience obtained outside of California during the six-year period immediately preceding the date the applicant initially obtained the license described above. If the applicant has less than 3,000 hours of qualifying supervised experience, time actively licensed as a professional clinical counselor shall be accepted at a rate of 100 hours per month up to a maximum of 1,200 hours if the applicant’s degree meets the practicum requirement described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 4999.63 without exemptions or remediation.

(4) The applicant passes the examinations required to obtain a license under this chapter. An applicant who obtained his or her license or registration under another jurisdiction may apply for licensure with the board without taking the clinical examination if both of the following conditions are met:

(A) The applicant obtained a passing score on the clinical licensing examination set forth in regulation as accepted by the board.

(B) The applicant’s license or registration in that jurisdiction is active, in good standing at the time of his or her application, and is not revoked, suspended, surrendered, denied, or otherwise restricted or encumbered.

4999.61.

 (a) This section applies to persons who apply for licensure or registration on or after January 1, 2016, and who do not hold a license as described in Section 4999.60.

(b) The board shall accept education gained from an out-of-state school for purposes of satisfying licensure or registration requirements if the education is substantially equivalent, as defined in Section 4999.62, and the applicant complies with subdivision (c) of Section 4999.40, if applicable.

(c) The board shall accept experience gained outside of California for purposes of satisfying licensure or registration requirements if the experience is substantially equivalent to that required by this chapter.

4999.62.

 (a) This section applies to persons who apply for licensure or registration on or after January 1, 2016, and who do not hold a license as described in Section 4999.60.

(b) For purposes of Section 4999.61, education is substantially equivalent if all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The degree is obtained from an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12, and consists of, at a minimum, the following:

(A) (i) For an applicant who obtained his or her degree within the timeline prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 4999.33 the degree shall contain no less than 60 graduate semester units or 90 graduate quarter units of instruction.

(ii) Up to 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of instruction may be remediated, if missing from the degree. The remediation may occur while the applicant is registered as an associate.

(B) For an applicant who obtained his or her degree within the timeline prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 4999.32 the degree shall contain no less than 48 graduate semester units or 72 graduate quarter units of instruction.

(C) Six semester units or nine quarter units of practicum, including, but not limited to, a minimum of 280 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.

(D) The required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33.

(i) (I) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than six of the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 may satisfy those deficiencies by successfully completing graduate level coursework at an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. Coursework taken to meet any deficiencies shall be the equivalent of three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of study.

(II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), no applicant shall be deficient in the required areas of study specified in subparagraph (E) or (G) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33.

(ii) An applicant who completed a course in professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling as required by subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 that did not contain instruction in California law and ethics shall complete an 18-hour course in California law and professional ethics that includes, but is not limited to, instruction in advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous clients, psychotherapist-client privilege, recordkeeping, client access to records, state and federal laws relating to confidentiality of patient health information, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, and therapist disclosures to clients. An applicant shall complete this coursework prior to registration as an associate.

(iii) An applicant who has not completed a course in professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling as required by subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 shall complete this required coursework, including content in California law and ethics. An applicant shall complete this coursework prior to registration as an associate.

(2) The applicant completes any units required by subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 not already completed in his or her education as follows:

(A) At least 15 semester units or 22.5 quarter units of advanced coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues or special populations. This coursework is in addition to the course requirements described in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1).

(B) Coursework shall be from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12.

(3) (A) The applicant completes the following coursework not already completed in his or her education:

(i) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training in human sexuality, as specified in Section 25 and any regulations promulgated thereunder, including the study of the physiological, psychological, and social cultural variables associated with sexual behavior, gender identity, and the assessment and treatment of psychosexual dysfunction.

(ii) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, intervention strategies, and same-gender abuse dynamics.

(iii) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28 and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(iv) A minimum of 10 contact hours of instruction in aging and long-term care, including biological, social, cognitive, and psychological aspects of aging. This coursework shall include instruction on the assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder and dependent adult abuse and neglect.

(B) This coursework may be from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12, or from a continuing education provider that is acceptable to the board as defined in Section 4999.76. Undergraduate coursework shall not satisfy this requirement.

(4) The applicant completes the following coursework not already completed in his or her education from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12, or from a continuing education provider that is acceptable to the board as defined in Section 4999.76. Undergraduate coursework shall not satisfy this requirement.

(A) At least three semester units, or 45 hours, of instruction regarding the principles of mental health recovery-oriented care and methods of service delivery in recovery-oriented practice environments, including structured meetings with various consumers and family members of consumers of mental health services to enhance understanding of their experiences of mental illness, treatment, and recovery.

(B) At least one semester unit, or 15 hours, of instruction that includes an understanding of various California cultures and the social and psychological implications of socioeconomic position.

(5) An applicant may complete any units and course content requirements required under paragraph (2), (3), or (4) not already completed in his or her education while registered with the board as an associate.

4999.63.

 (a) This section applies to persons who apply for licensure or registration on or after January 1, 2016, and who hold a license as described in Section 4999.60.

(b) For purposes of Section 4999.60, education is substantially equivalent if all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The degree is obtained from an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12, and consists of the following:

(A) (i) For an applicant who obtained his or her degree within the timeline prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 4999.33 the degree shall contain no less than 60 graduate semester or 90 graduate quarter units of instruction.

(ii) Up to 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of instruction may be remediated, if missing from the degree. The remediation may occur while the applicant is registered as an associate.

(B) For an applicant who obtained his or her degree within the timeline prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 4999.32 the degree shall contain no less than 48 graduate semester or 72 graduate quarter units of instruction.

(C) Six semester units or nine quarter units of practicum, including, but not limited to, a minimum of 280 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.

(i) An applicant who has been licensed for at least two years in clinical practice, as verified by the board, is exempt from this requirement.

(ii) An out-of-state applicant who has been licensed for less than two years in clinical practice, as verified by the board, who does not meet the practicum requirement, shall remediate the requirement by demonstrating completion of a total of 280 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical experience, as specified in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33. Any postdegree hours gained to meet this requirement are in addition to the 3,000 hours of experience required by this chapter, and shall be gained while the applicant is registered with the board as an associate.

(D) The required areas of study specified in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33.

(i) (I) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than six of the required areas of study specified in subparagraphs (A) to (M), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 may satisfy those deficiencies by successfully completing graduate level coursework at an accredited or approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. Coursework taken to meet any deficiencies shall be the equivalent of three semester units or four and one-half quarter units of study.

(II) Notwithstanding subclause (I), no applicant shall be deficient in the required areas of study specified in subparagraphs (E) or (G) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33.

(ii) An applicant who completed a course in professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling as required by subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 that did not contain instruction in California law and ethics shall complete an 18-hour course in California law and professional ethics that includes, but is not limited to, instruction in advertising, scope of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors, confidentiality, dangerous clients, psychotherapist-client privilege, recordkeeping, client access to records, state and federal laws relating to confidentiality of patient health information, dual relationships, child abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, and therapist disclosures to clients. An applicant shall complete this coursework prior to registration as an associate.

(iii) An applicant who has not completed a course in professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling as required by subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 shall complete this required coursework, including content in California law and ethics. An applicant shall complete this coursework prior to registration as an associate.

(2) The applicant completes any units required under subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 not already completed in his or her education as follows:

(A) At least 15 semester units or 22.5 quarter units of advanced coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues or special populations. This coursework is in addition to the course requirements described in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1).

(B) Coursework shall be from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12.

(3) The applicant completes the following coursework not already completed in his or her education:

(A) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training in human sexuality, as specified in Section 25 and any regulations promulgated thereunder, including the study of the physiological, psychological, and social cultural variables associated with sexual behavior, gender identity, and the assessment and treatment of psychosexual dysfunction.

(B) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, intervention strategies, and same-gender abuse dynamics.

(C) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28 and any regulations promulgated under that section.

(D) A minimum of 10 contact hours of instruction in aging and long-term care, including biological, social, cognitive, and psychological aspects of aging. This coursework shall include instruction on the assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder and dependent adult abuse and neglect.

(E) This coursework may be from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12, or from a continuing education provider that is acceptable to the board as defined in Section 4999.76. Undergraduate coursework shall not satisfy this requirement.

(4) The applicant completes the following coursework not already completed in his or her education from an accredited or approved school, college, or university as defined in Section 4999.12, or from a continuing education provider that is acceptable to the board as defined in Section 4999.76. Undergraduate coursework shall not satisfy this requirement.

(A) At least three semester units or 45 hours of instruction regarding the principles of mental health recovery-oriented care and methods of service delivery in recovery-oriented practice environments, including structured meetings with various consumers and family members of consumers of mental health services to enhance understanding of their experience of mental illness, treatment, and recovery.

(B) At least one semester unit or 15 hours of instruction that includes an understanding of various California cultures and the social and psychological implications of socioeconomic position.

(5) An applicant may complete any units and course content requirements required by subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) or paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) not already completed in his or her education while registered with the board as an associate, unless otherwise specified.

4999.118.

 A licensee or registrant shall give written notice to the board of a name change, giving both the old and new names. The written notice shall be submitted to the board within 30 days of the issuance of a new government-issued photographic identification. The licensee or registrant shall certify the information is correct by signing a statement under penalty of perjury. A copy of both of the following documents evidencing the change shall be submitted with the notice:

(a) A current government-issued photographic identification.

(b) The legal document authorizing the name change, such as a court order or a marriage certificate.

4999.120.

 The board shall assess fees for the application for and the issuance and renewal of licenses and for the registration of associates to cover administrative and operating expenses of the board related to this chapter. Fees assessed pursuant to this section shall not exceed the following:

(a) The fee for the application for licensure shall be up to two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(b) The fee for the application for associate registration shall be up to one hundred fifty dollars ($150).

(c) The fee for the board-administered clinical examination, if the board chooses to adopt this examination in regulations, shall be up to two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(d) The fee for the law and ethics examination shall be up to one hundred fifty dollars ($150).

(e) The fee for the issuance of a license shall be up to two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(f) The fee for annual renewal of an associate registration shall be up to one hundred fifty dollars ($150).

(g) The fee for two-year renewal of licenses shall be up to two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(h) The fee for issuance of a retired license shall be forty dollars ($40).

(i) The fee for rescoring an examination shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(j) The fee for issuance of a replacement license or registration shall be twenty dollars ($20).

(k) The fee for issuance of a certificate or letter of good standing shall be twenty-five dollars ($25).

5094.

 (a) In order for education to be qualifying, it shall meet the standards described in subdivision (b) or (c) of this section.

(b) At a minimum, education shall be from a degree-granting university, college, or other institution of learning accredited by a regional or national accrediting agency included in a list of these agencies published by the United States Secretary of Education under the requirements of the Higher Education Act of 1965 as amended (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.).

(c) Education from a college, university, or other institution of learning located outside the United States may be qualifying provided it is deemed by the board to be equivalent to education obtained under subdivision (b). The board may require an applicant to submit documentation of his or her education to a credential evaluation service approved by the board for evaluation and to cause the results of this evaluation to be reported to the board in order to assess educational equivalency.

(d) The board shall adopt regulations specifying the criteria and procedures for approval of credential evaluation services. These regulations shall, at a minimum, require that the credential evaluation service (1) furnish evaluations directly to the board, (2) furnish evaluations written in English, (3) be a member of the American Association of Collegiate Registrars and Admissions Officers, NAFSA: Association of International Educators, or the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services, (4) be used by accredited colleges and universities, (5) be reevaluated by the board every five years, (6) maintain a complete set of reference materials as specified by the board, (7) base evaluations only upon authentic, original transcripts and degrees and have a written procedure for identifying fraudulent transcripts, (8) include in the evaluation report, for each degree held by the applicant, the equivalent degree offered in the United States, the date the degree was granted, the institution granting the degree, an English translation of the course titles, and the semester unit equivalence for each of the courses, (9) have an appeal procedure for applicants, and (10) furnish the board with information concerning the credential evaluation service that includes biographical information on evaluators and translators, three letters of references from public or private agencies, statistical information on the number of applications processed annually for the past five years, and any additional information the board may require in order to ascertain that the credential evaluation service meets the standards set forth in this subdivision and in any regulations adopted by the board.

5680.1.

 Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, a license that has expired may be renewed at any time within five years after its expiration on filing of an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the board, and payment of all accrued and unpaid renewal fees. If the license is renewed more than 30 days after its expiration, the licenseholder, as a condition precedent to renewal, shall also pay the delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. Renewal under this section shall be effective on the date on which the application is filed, on the date on which all renewal fees are paid, or on the date on which the delinquency fee, if any, is paid, whichever last occurs. If so renewed, the license shall continue in effect through the date provided in Section 5680 that next occurs after the effective date of the renewal, when it shall expire if it is not again renewed.

5680.2.

 A license that is not renewed within five years after its expiration may not be renewed, restored, reissued, or reinstated thereafter, but the holder of the expired license may apply for and obtain a new license if:

(a) No fact, circumstance, or condition exists which, if the license were issued, would justify its revocation or suspension.

(b) The holder of the expired license pays the fees required of new applicants.

(c) The holder of the expired license takes and passes the current California Supplemental Examination.

7075.1.

 (a) No license, regardless of type or classification, shall be transferable to any other person or entity under any circumstances.

(b) A license number may be reissued after cancellation, revocation, suspension, or expiration beyond the renewal period specified in Section 7141, only under the following circumstances:

(1) To an individual upon application.

(2) To a partnership upon application if there is no change in the partners or partnership structure.

(3) To a corporation upon application if there is no change in the status of the corporation as registered with the Secretary of State.

(4) To a limited liability company upon application if there is no change in the status of the company as registered with the Secretary of State.

(c) A license number may be reissued or reassigned to a different entity only under the following conditions:

(1) To a corporation when the parent corporation has merged or created a subsidiary, the subsidiary has merged into the parent corporation, or the corporation has changed its filing status with the Secretary of State from a domestic corporation to a foreign corporation or from a foreign corporation to a domestic corporation, and the new entity is being formed to continue the business of the formerly licensed corporation.

(2) To a limited liability company when the parent limited liability company has merged or created a subsidiary, the subsidiary has merged into the parent limited liability company, or the limited liability company has changed its filing status with the Secretary of State from a domestic limited liability company to a foreign limited liability company or from a foreign limited liability company to a domestic limited liability company, and the new entity is being formed to continue the business of the formerly licensed limited liability company.

(3) To an individual when the individual is an immediate family member of a licensed individual who is deceased or absent and the license is required to continue an existing family contracting business.

(4) To a corporation or limited liability company when created by immediate members of an individual licensee’s family to continue an existing deceased or absent individual licensee’s contracting business.

(5) To a corporation or limited liability company when the corporation or limited liability company is formed by an individual licensee and the individual licensee maintains ownership directly or indirectly of shares or membership interests evidencing more than 50 percent of the voting power.

(6) To a limited liability company that is formed by a corporation to continue the business of the corporation subsequent to the cancellation of the corporate entity’s license, provided the personnel listed for each entity are the same.

(d) For purposes of this section, an immediate family member of a deceased or absent licensed individual is either a spouse, father, mother, brother, sister, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, grandson, granddaughter, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law.

7145.5.

 (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.

(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.

(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.

(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.

(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors’ State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.

(d) All versions of the application for contractors’ licenses shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.

(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement.

7558.

 A private investigator license, branch office certificate, and pocket card issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed.

7583.5.

 (a) Every licensee and any person employed and compensated by a licensee, other lawful business or public agency as a security guard or patrolperson, and who in the course of that employment or business carries a firearm, shall complete a course of training in the exercise of the powers to arrest and a course of training in the carrying and use of firearms. This subdivision shall not apply to armored vehicle guards hired prior to January 1, 1977. Armored vehicle guards hired on or after January 1, 1977, shall complete a course of training in the carrying and use of firearms, but shall not be required to complete a course of training in the exercise of the powers to arrest. The course of training in the carrying and use of firearms shall not be required of any employee who is not required or permitted by a licensee to carry or use firearms. The course in the carrying and use of firearms and the course of training in the exercise of the powers to arrest shall meet the standards which shall be prescribed by the Department of Consumer Affairs. The department shall encourage restraint and caution in the use of firearms.

(b) No licensee or uniformed employee of a licensee shall carry or use any firearm unless the licensee or employee has in his or her possession a valid firearm qualification card.

7583.20.

 (a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration, a registrant seeking to renew a security guard registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and the renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal or registration.

(c) In the event a registrant fails to request a renewal of his or her registration as provided for in this chapter, the registration shall expire as indicated on the registration. If the registration is renewed within 60 days after its expiration, the registrant, as a condition precedent to renewal, shall pay the renewal fee and the delinquency fee.

(d) The delinquency fee is 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of expiration, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(e) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant prior to the expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(f) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated unless a registrant meets both of the following requirements:

(1) All fines assessed pursuant to Section 7587.7 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(2) On and after July 1, 2005, the registrant certifies, on a form prescribed by the bureau, that he or she has completed the 32 hours of the training required by subdivision (b) of Section 7583.6.

7583.20.

 (a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration, a registrant seeking to renew a security guard registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and the renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal or registration.

(c) In the event a registrant fails to request a renewal of his or her registration as provided for in this chapter, the registration shall expire as indicated on the registration. If the registration is renewed within 60 days after its expiration, the registrant, as a condition precedent to renewal, shall pay the renewal fee and the delinquency fee.

(d) The delinquency fee is 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of expiration, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(e) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant prior to the expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(f) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated unless a registrant meets both of the following requirements:

(1) All fines assessed pursuant to Section 7587.7 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(2) On and after July 1, 2005, the registrant certifies, on a form prescribed by the bureau, that he or she has completed the 32 hours of the training required by subdivision (b) of Section 7583.6.

(g) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2018, and, as of January 1, 2019, is repealed.

7583.21.

 The registration of a security guard shall be automatically suspended if the guard is convicted of any crime that is substantially related to the functions, duties, and responsibilities of a security guard. The automatic suspension shall be effectuated by the mailing of a notice of conviction and suspension of license to be sent by the bureau to the registered guard at his or her address of record. The notice shall contain a statement of preliminary determination by the director or his or her designee that the crime stated is reasonably related to the functions, duties, and responsibilities of a security guard. Upon proper request by the guard, a hearing shall be convened within 60 days of the request, before the private security disciplinary review committee, as specified in Section 7581.3, for a determination as to whether the automatic suspension shall be made permanent or whether the registration shall be revoked or the guard otherwise disciplined.

In enacting this provision, the Legislature finds and declares that registered guards convicted of the commission of crimes reasonably related to the functions, duties, and responsibilities of a security guard shall be subject to automatic suspension of their license and that summary suspension is justified by compelling state interests of public safety and security within the meaning of the California Supreme Court’s decision in Eye Dog Foundation v. State Board of Guide Dogs for the Blind, 67 Cal. 2d 536.

7583.32.

 (a) A firearms qualification card expires two years from the date of issuance, if not renewed. A person who wishes to renew a firearms qualification card shall file an application for renewal at least 60 days prior to the card’s expiration. A person whose card has expired shall not carry a firearm until he or she has been issued a renewal card by the bureau.

(b) The bureau shall not renew a firearms qualification card unless all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The cardholder has filed with the bureau a completed application for renewal of a firearms qualification card, on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury certifying that the information on the application is true and correct.

(2) The applicant has requalified on the range and has successfully passed a written examination based on course content as specified in the firearms training manual approved by the department and taught at a training facility approved by the bureau.

(3) The application is accompanied by a firearms requalification fee as prescribed in this chapter.

(4) The applicant has produced evidence to the firearm training facility, either upon receiving his or her original qualification card or upon filing for renewal of that card, that he or she is a citizen of the United States or has permanent legal alien status in the United States. Evidence of citizenship or permanent legal alien status is that deemed sufficient by the bureau to ensure compliance with federal laws prohibiting possession of firearms by persons unlawfully in the United States and may include, but not be limited to, the United States Department of Justice, Immigration and Naturalization Service Form I-151 or I-551, Alien Registration Receipt Card, naturalization documents, or birth certificates evidencing lawful residence or status in the United States.

(c) An expired firearms qualification card may not be renewed. A person with an expired registration is required to apply for a new firearms qualification in the manner required of persons not previously registered. A person whose card has expired shall not carry a firearm until he or she has been issued a new firearms qualification card by the bureau.

(d) Paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) shall not apply to a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who is authorized to carry a firearm in the course of his or her duties and who has successfully completed requalification training or to a federal qualified law enforcement officer, as defined in Section 926B of Title 18 of the United States Code (18 U.S.C. Sec. 926B), who is authorized to carry a firearm in the course of his or her duties and who has successfully completed requalification training.

7586.

 A private patrol operator license, branch office certificate, and pocket card issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed.

7590.1.

 The following terms as used in this chapter have the meaning expressed in this article:

(a) “Person” means any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation.

(b) “Department” means the Department of Consumer Affairs.

(c) “Director” means the Director of Consumer Affairs.

(d) “Bureau” means the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.

(e) “Chief” means the Chief of the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.

(f) “Employer” means a person who employs an individual for wages or salary, lists the individual on the employer’s payroll records, and withholds all legally required deductions and contributions.

(g) “Employee” means an individual who works for an employer, is listed on the employer’s payroll records, and is under the employer’s direction and control.

(h) “Employer-employee relationship” means an individual who works for another and where the individual’s name appears on the payroll records of the employer.

(i) “Licensee” means a business entity, whether an individual, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation licensed under this chapter.

(j) “Qualified manager” means an individual who is in active control, management, and direction of the licensee’s business, and who is in possession of a current and valid qualified manager’s certificate pursuant to this chapter.

(k) “Registrant” means any person registered or who has applied for registration under this chapter.

(l) “Branch office” means any location, other than the principal place of business of the licensee, which is licensed as set forth in Article 11 (commencing with Section 7599.20).

(m) “Branch office manager” means an individual designated by the qualified manager to manage the licensee’s branch office and who has met the requirements as set forth in Article 11 (commencing with Section 7599.20).

(n) “Alarm system” means an assembly of equipment and devices arranged to signal the presence of a hazard requiring urgent attention and to which police may respond.

(o) “Alarm agent” means a person employed by an alarm company operator whose duties include selling on premises, altering, installing, maintaining, moving, repairing, replacing, servicing, responding, or monitoring an alarm system, or a person who manages or supervises a person employed by an alarm company to perform any of the duties described in this subdivision or any person in training for any of the duties described in this subdivision.

(p) “Deadly weapon” means and includes any instrument or weapon of the kind commonly known as a blackjack, slungshot, billy, sandclub, sandbag, metal knuckles; any dirk, dagger, pistol, revolver, or any other firearm; any knife having a blade longer than five inches; any razor with an unguarded blade; or any metal pipe or bar used or intended to be used as a club.

(q) “Firearms permit” means a permit issued by the bureau, pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 7596), to a licensee, a qualified manager, or an alarm agent, to carry an exposed firearm while on duty.

(r) (1) “Advertisement” means:

(A) Any written or printed communication for the purpose of soliciting, describing, or promoting the licensed business of the licensee, including a brochure, letter, pamphlet, newspaper, periodical, publication, or other writing.

(B) A directory listing caused or permitted by the licensee which indicates his or her licensed activity.

(C) A radio, television, or similar airwave transmission which solicits or promotes the licensed business of the licensee.

(2) “Advertisement” does not include any of the following:

(A) Any printing or writing used on buildings, vehicles, uniforms, badges, or other property where the purpose of the printing or writing is identification.

(B) Any printing or writing on communications, memoranda, or any other writings used in the ordinary course of business where the sole purpose of the writing is other than the solicitation or promotion of business.

(C) Any printing or writing on novelty objects used in the promotion of the licensee’s business where the printing of the information required by this chapter would be impractical due to the available area or surface.

(s) “Residential sales agreement” means and includes an agreement between an alarm company operator and an owner or tenant for the purchase of an alarm system to be utilized in the personal residence of the owner or tenant.

(t) “Firearm permit” means and includes “firearms permit,” “firearms qualification card,” “firearms qualification,” and “firearms qualification permit.”

(u) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2019, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2019, deletes or extends that date.

7590.1.

 The following terms as used in this chapter have the meaning expressed in this article:

(a) “Person” means any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation.

(b) “Department” means the Department of Consumer Affairs.

(c) “Director” means the Director of Consumer Affairs.

(d) “Bureau” means the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.

(e) “Chief” means the Chief of the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.

(f) “Employer” means a person who employs an individual for wages or salary, lists the individual on the employer’s payroll records, and withholds all legally required deductions and contributions.

(g) “Employee” means an individual who works for an employer, is listed on the employer’s payroll records, and is under the employer’s direction and control.

(h) “Employer-employee relationship” means an individual who works for another and where the individual’s name appears on the payroll records of the employer.

(i) “Licensee” means a business entity, whether an individual, partnership, or corporation licensed under this chapter.

(j) “Qualified manager” means an individual who is in active control, management, and direction of the licensee’s business, and who is in possession of a current and valid qualified manager’s certificate pursuant to this chapter.

(k) “Registrant” means any person registered or who has applied for registration under this chapter.

(l) “Branch office” means any location, other than the principal place of business of the licensee, which is licensed as set forth in Article 11 (commencing with Section 7599.20).

(m) “Branch office manager” means an individual designated by the qualified manager to manage the licensee’s branch office and who has met the requirements as set forth in Article 11 (commencing with Section 7599.20).

(n) “Alarm system” means an assembly of equipment and devices arranged to signal the presence of a hazard requiring urgent attention and to which police may respond.

(o) “Alarm agent” means a person employed by an alarm company operator whose duties include selling on premises, altering, installing, maintaining, moving, repairing, replacing, servicing, responding, or monitoring an alarm system, or a person who manages or supervises a person employed by an alarm company to perform any of the duties described in this subdivision or any person in training for any of the duties described in this subdivision.

(p) “Deadly weapon” means and includes any instrument or weapon of the kind commonly known as a blackjack, slungshot, billy, sandclub, sandbag, metal knuckles; any dirk, dagger, pistol, revolver, or any other firearm; any knife having a blade longer than five inches; any razor with an unguarded blade; or any metal pipe or bar used or intended to be used as a club.

(q) “Firearms permit” means a permit issued by the bureau, pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 7596), to a licensee, a qualified manager, or an alarm agent, to carry an exposed firearm while on duty.

(r) (1) “Advertisement” means:

(A) Any written or printed communication for the purpose of soliciting, describing, or promoting the licensed business of the licensee, including a brochure, letter, pamphlet, newspaper, periodical, publication, or other writing.

(B) A directory listing caused or permitted by the licensee which indicates his or her licensed activity.

(C) A radio, television, or similar airwave transmission which solicits or promotes the licensed business of the licensee.

(2) “Advertisement” does not include any of the following:

(A) Any printing or writing used on buildings, vehicles, uniforms, badges, or other property where the purpose of the printing or writing is identification.

(B) Any printing or writing on communications, memoranda, or any other writings used in the ordinary course of business where the sole purpose of the writing is other than the solicitation or promotion of business.

(C) Any printing or writing on novelty objects used in the promotion of the licensee’s business where the printing of the information required by this chapter would be impractical due to the available area or surface.

(s) “Residential sales agreement” means and includes an agreement between an alarm company operator and an owner or tenant for the purchase of an alarm system to be utilized in the personal residence of the owner or tenant.

(t) “Firearm permit” means and includes “firearms permit,” “firearms qualification card,” “firearms qualification,” and “firearms qualification permit.”

(u) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2019.

7593.11.

 An alarm company operator license issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. To renew an unexpired license or certificate, the licensee shall apply for renewal on a form prescribed by the director, pay all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section, and pay the renewal fee. On renewal, evidence of renewal of the license or certificate that the director may prescribe shall be issued to the licensee. The bureau shall send to each licensee a notice of renewal at least 45 calendar days prior to the expiration of each license.

7598.17.

 (a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration of a registration, a registrant who desires to renew his or her registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal of registration.

(c) An expired registration may be renewed provided the registrant files a renewal application on a form prescribed by the director and the renewal and delinquency fees prescribed by this chapter are returned to the bureau within 60 days of the expiration date of the registration. A firearms permit is not valid while the registration is expired.

(d) A registration not renewed within 60 days following its expiration may not be renewed thereafter. The holder of the expired registration may obtain a new registration only on compliance with all of the provisions of this chapter relating to the issuance of an original registration. The delinquency fee is 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of expiration, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(e) The holder of an expired registration shall not engage in the activity for which a registration is required until the bureau issues a renewal registration.

(f) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant, prior to the date of expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration, for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(g) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated until all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(h) A new registration shall be issued subject to payment of all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of Section 7591.9 and payment of all applicable fees.

7598.17.

 (a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration of a registration, a registrant who desires to renew his or her registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal of registration.

(c) An expired registration may be renewed provided the registrant files a renewal application on a form prescribed by the director and the renewal and delinquency fees prescribed by this chapter are returned to the bureau within 60 days of the expiration date of the registration. A firearms permit is not valid while the registration is expired.

(d) A registration not renewed within 60 days following its expiration may not be renewed thereafter. The holder of the expired registration may obtain a new registration only on compliance with all of the provisions of this chapter relating to the issuance of an original registration. The delinquency fee is 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of expiration, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(e) The holder of an expired registration shall not engage in the activity for which a registration is required until the bureau issues a renewal registration.

(f) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant, prior to the date of expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration, for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(g) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated until all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(h) A new registration shall be issued subject to payment of all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of Section 7591.9 and payment of all applicable fees.

(i) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2018, and, as of January 1, 2019, is repealed.

7599.54.

 (a) Except as provided by Section 7599.56, every agreement, including, but not limited to, lease agreements, monitoring agreements, and service agreements, including all labor, services, and materials to be provided for the installation of an alarm system, shall be in writing. Except as provided by Section 7599.56, all amendments subject to the provisions of this section to an initial agreement shall be in writing. Each initial agreement shall contain, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) The name, business address, business telephone number, and license number of the licensed alarm company operator and the registration number of any alarm agent who solicited or negotiated the agreement.

(2) The approximate dates when the work will begin and be substantially completed.

(3) A description of the work to be done, a description of the materials to be used, and the agreed consideration for the work.

(4) A disclosure that alarm company operators are licensed and regulated by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services, Department of Consumer Affairs, including the bureau’s current address and contact information.

(5) A description of the alarm system including the major components thereof and services to be provided to the purchaser once the alarm is installed, including response or monitoring services, if any.

(6) Other matters agreed to by the parties of the contract. The agreement shall be legible and shall be in a form as to clearly describe any other document which is to be incorporated into the contract, and, before any work is done, the client shall be furnished with a copy of the written agreement signed by the licensee.

(7) A statement setting forth that upon completion of the installation of the alarm system, the alarm company shall thoroughly instruct the purchaser in the proper use of the alarm system.

(8) In the event a mechanic’s lien is to be utilized, a notice-to-owner statement which shall describe, in nontechnical language and in a clear and coherent manner using words with common and everyday meaning, the pertinent provisions of this state’s mechanics’ lien laws and the rights and responsibilities of an owner of property and a contractor thereunder, including the provisions relating to the filing of a contract concerning a work of improvement with the county recorder and the recording in the office of a contractor’s payment bond for private work.

(9) For residential agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2017, that include an automatic renewal provision renewing the agreement for a period of more than one month, a clear and distinct disclosure shall be included separate from the terms and conditions of the agreement advising the consumer that the agreement he or she is entering into contains an automatic renewal provision. The disclosure shall include the length of time of the renewal term and specify that failure to provide notification of nonrenewal to the licensee, as required in the agreement, will result in the automatic renewal of the agreement. The consumer shall acknowledge being advised of the automatic renewal provision by signing or initialing the disclosure. The disclosure may be included on the same document as the three-day right to cancel form required by Section 1689.7 of the Civil Code. The automatic renewal provision shall be void and invalid without a separate acknowledgment of the disclosure by the consumer.

(10) In addition to the above, every initial residential sales and lease agreement, the total cost which over the time period fixed by the agreement exceeds two hundred fifty dollars ($250), including the cost of all labor, service, or material to be provided by the licensee for the installation, shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(A) A schedule of payments showing the amount of each payment as a sum in dollars and cents. This schedule of payments shall be referenced to the amount of work for services to be performed or to any materials or equipment to be supplied.

(B) If the payment schedule contained in the agreement provides for a downpayment to be paid to the licensee by the owner or the tenant before commencement of the work, that downpayment shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) or 10 percent of the contract price, excluding finance charges, whichever is the lesser.

(C) In no event shall the payment schedule provide that the licensee receive, nor shall the licensee actually receive, payment in excess of 100 percent of the value of the work performed on the project at any time, excluding finance charges, except that the licensee may receive an initial downpayment authorized by subparagraph (B). A failure by the licensee, without legal excuse, to substantially commence work within 20 days of the approximate date specified in the contract when work is to commence, shall postpone the next succeeding payment to the licensee for that period of time equivalent to the time between when substantial commencement was to have occurred and when it did occur.

(D) A notice-to-owner statement which shall describe, in nontechnical language and in a clear and coherent manner using words with common and everyday meaning, the pertinent provisions of this state’s mechanics’ lien laws and the rights and responsibilities of an owner of property and a contractor thereunder, including the provisions relating to the filing of a contract concerning a work of improvement with the county recorder and the recording in the office of a contractor’s payment bond for private work.

(E) A description of what constitutes substantial commencement of work pursuant to the contract.

(F) A disclosure that failure by the licensee, without legal excuse, to substantially commence work within 20 days from the approximate date specified in the agreement when the work will begin is a violation of the Alarm Company Act.

(G) A disclosure informing the buyer of any potential permit fees which may be required by local jurisdictions concerning the monitoring of an existing alarm system.

(H) This section shall not be construed to prohibit the parties to a residential alarm system sale contract from agreeing to a contract or account subject to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1801) of Title 2 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code.

(b) A violation of this section or failure to commence work pursuant to subparagraph (F) of paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) may result in a fine of one hundred dollars ($100) for the first violation and a fine of five hundred dollars ($500) for each subsequent violation.

7713.

 A crematory shall at all times employ a licensed crematory manager to manage, supervise, and direct its operations.

(a) Every crematory shall designate a licensed crematory manager to manage the crematory, and shall report the designation to the bureau within 10 days of the effective date. Any change in the designated manager shall be reported to the bureau within 10 days. Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, licensed crematories within close geographical proximity of each other may request the bureau to allow a licensed crematory manager to manage, supervise, and direct the business or profession of more than one facility.

(b) The designated crematory manager shall be responsible for exercising direct supervision and control over the operations, employees, and agents of the crematory as is necessary to ensure full compliance with the applicable provisions of this code, the Health and Safety Code, and any regulations adopted thereto. Failure of the designated crematory manager or the licensed crematory to exercise that supervision or control shall constitute a ground for disciplinary action.

(c) A crematory may employ, in addition to the designated crematory manager, additional licensed crematory managers. However, only one licensed crematory manager may be appointed as the designated crematory manager of the crematory.

8567.

 (a) Should a field representative or applicator change his or her employment, or should an operator enter the employ of a registered company, or being already employed by a registered company change his or her employment, or being employed by a registered company leave that employment and enter the pest control business on his or her own behalf, he or she shall notify the registrar on a form prescribed by the board and issued by the registrar in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the board. The registrar shall register the change in his or her records.

(b) If a field representative, operator, or applicator fails to notify the registrar within 30 days of the date a change of employment occurs, a registered company may notify the registrar, on a form prescribed by the board, that the field representative, operator, or applicator is no longer associated with the registered company.

12003.

 “Secretary” means the Secretary of Food and Agriculture.

12014.

 (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), any sealer who seals any weight, measure, balance or weighing or measuring instrument or apparatus before first testing and making it conform with the standards of the state, or who condemns any weight, measure, balance or weighing or measuring instrument or apparatus without first testing it is guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b) A sealer may engage in a planned program of probability sampling of devices, using methods approved by the secretary. The sealing of a device by a sealer pursuant to such sampling and testing program is exempt from the provisions of subdivision (a).

12022.

 Every person who, in putting up in any container, goods usually sold by weight, puts in or conceals therein any other substance including moisture, except such moisture as may be included or absorbed by the goods or commodity contained therein during preparation for market or processing in accordance with ordinary commercial practice, for the purpose of increasing the weight of such container with intent thereby to sell the goods therein or to enable another to sell the same, for an increased weight, is punishable by a fine of not less than twenty-five dollars ($25) for each offense. The amount of added moisture contained in poultry meat as defined in Section 380.20 of the Agricultural Code shall not exceed 4 percent by weight or any greater amount established by regulation of the secretary.

12103.5.

 The duty of enforcing this division and carrying out its provisions and requirements is vested in the secretary and in each sealer acting under the supervision and direction of the secretary.

12204.

 In chartered counties providing for the civil service examination of sealers, deputy sealers, or inspectors the secretary shall issue a license without further examination upon presentation of a certificate showing the candidate has passed the examination. In these counties the board or commission responsible for the civil service examination may require a license from the secretary as a minimum qualification.

12206.

 The jurisdiction of a county sealer appointed by a county or the secretary extends over the entire territorial limits of the county.

12303.

 The state standards of weights and measures by which all state and county standards of weights and measures shall be tried, proved, and sealed include the following standards, provided the standards have been certified relative to national standards under the direction of the National Institute of Standards and Technology:

(a) Metrological standards provided by the United States.

(b) Metrological standards procured by the state.

(c) Metrological standards in the possession of county sealers.

(d) Metrological standards in the possession of laboratories certified to perform measurement services pursuant to Section 12500.7.

12304.

 The standards of the state shall be kept in a suitable laboratory location or, if transportable, shall be maintained under environmental conditions appropriate for maintaining the integrity of the unit of measure represented by the standard. The standards shall be directly certified by the National Institute of Standards and Technology or by any measurement assurance procedures approved by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

12304.

 The department shall keep the standards of the state in a suitable laboratory location or, if transportable, shall maintain the standards under environmental conditions appropriate for maintaining the integrity of the unit of measure represented by the standard. The department shall have the standards directly certified by the National Institute of Standards and Technology or by any measurement assurance procedures approved by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

12310.

 The department, or a laboratory designated by the department that has been certified pursuant to Section 12500.7, shall certify the standards of the county sealers as often as may be deemed by the secretary to be necessary, based upon a review of statistical data resulting from previous certifications, but in no event shall the period of time between certifications exceed 10 years. In the absence of statistical data, standards shall be certified at least every two years. Sealers shall, upon the request of the department, deliver for testing those standards in their possession that are used in the discharge of their duties. Direct expenses incurred in the certification process shall be borne by the state, while any incidental expense, such as the cost of transportation, shall be borne by the county whose standards have been certified.

12310.

 The department, or a laboratory designated by the department that has been certified pursuant to Section 12314, shall certify the standards of the county sealers as often as may be deemed by the secretary to be necessary, based upon a review of statistical data resulting from previous certifications, but in no event shall the period of time between certifications exceed 10 years. In the absence of statistical data, standards shall be certified at least every two years. Sealers shall, upon the request of the department, deliver for testing those standards in their possession that are used in the discharge of their duties. Direct expenses incurred in the certification process shall be borne by the state or recovered pursuant to Section 12241, while any incidental expense, such as the cost of transportation, shall be borne by the county whose standards have been certified.

12310.5.

 The department shall, upon request, certify and verify the various types of standards of weights and measures used by industry in accordance with the standards certified by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, when such standards are submitted to the department for verification and certification.

The department shall establish a schedule of fees sufficient to cover the cost of furnishing such services. All money received under the provisions of this section shall be paid into the State Treasury and credited to the Department of Agriculture Fund to be expended by the department for the administration of the provisions of this section.

12313.

 The definitions of basic units of weight and measure, and the tables of weight and measure and weights and measures equivalents, as published by the National Institute of Standards and Technology are recognized and shall govern weighing and measuring equipment and transactions in this state.

12500.

 As used in this chapter the following terms mean:

(a) “Weighing instrument” means any device, contrivance, apparatus, or instrument used, or designed to be used, for ascertaining weight and includes any tool, appliance, or accessory used or connected therewith.

(b) “Measuring instrument” means any device, contrivance, apparatus, or instrument used, or designed to be used, for ascertaining measure and includes any tool, appliance, or accessory used or connected therewith.

(c) “Correct” means any weight or measure or weighing, measuring, or counting instrument that meet all of the tolerance and specification requirements established by the secretary pursuant to Section 12107.

(d) “Incorrect” means any instrument that fails to meet all of the requirements of Section 12107.

(e) “Commercial purposes” include the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing that is sold on the basis of weight, measure, or count; or the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing upon which determination a charge for service is based. Devices used in a determination upon which a charge for service is based include, but are not limited to, taximeters, odometers, timing devices, parcel scales, shipping scales, and scales used in the payment of agricultural workers.

“Commercial purposes” do not include the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing that is performed within a plant or business as a part of the manufacturing, processing, or preparing for market of that commodity or thing, or the determination of charges for the transmission of letters or parcels of less than 150 pounds, except when that determination is made in the presence of the customer charged for the service.

12500.

 As used in this chapter the following terms mean:

(a) “Weighing instrument” means any device, contrivance, apparatus, or instrument used, or designed to be used, for ascertaining weight and includes any tool, appliance, or accessory used or connected therewith.

(b) “Measuring instrument” means any device, contrivance, apparatus, or instrument used, or designed to be used, for ascertaining measure and includes any tool, appliance, or accessory used or connected therewith.

(c) “Correct” means any weight or measure or weighing, measuring, or counting instrument that meet all of the tolerance and specification requirements established by the secretary pursuant to Section 12107.

(d) “Incorrect” means any instrument that fails to meet all of the requirements of Section 12107.

(e) “Commercial purposes” include the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing that is sold on the basis of weight, measure, or count; or the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing upon which determination a charge for service is based. Devices used in a determination upon which a charge for service is based include, but are not limited to, taximeters, odometers, timing devices, parcel scales, shipping scales, and scales used in the payment of agricultural workers.

“Commercial purposes” do not include the determination of the weight, measure, or count of any commodity or thing that is performed within a plant or business as a part of the manufacturing, processing, or preparing for market of that commodity or thing, or the determination of charges for the transmission of letters or parcels of less than 150 pounds, except when that determination is made in the presence of the customer charged for the service, or the determination of the weight of any animal or human by a qualified health provider, California-licensed veterinarian, licensed physician and surgeon, or staff members within the business operations of, and under the supervision of, a California-licensed veterinarian or licensed physician and surgeon for the purposes of determining the appropriate dosage of any medication or medical treatment or the volume, duration, or application of any medical procedure.

12500.8.

 The secretary may enter into an agreement with the National Type Evaluation Program, a certification program of the National Conference on Weights and Measures, and other weights and measures jurisdictions, to accept the certifications of each other for prototype examination purposes.

12501.1.

 Every person who uses, or intends to use, any weight or measure, or weighing or measuring instrument for commercial purposes shall, before using the same, cause them to be sealed by a sealer, unless they have been sealed before sale, in which case they may be used by the purchaser for the remainder of such period as is authorized in the regulations adopted by the secretary pursuant to Section 12212, or until they become “incorrect,” as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 12500.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, an odometer that has been tested by the manufacturer may be used commercially without further test during the remainder of the inspection period adopted by the secretary for odometers, but shall not be used commercially thereafter until it has been sealed by a sealer.

12511.

 Any weight, measure, or weighing or measuring instrument tested and found correct by any sealer may be used within this state without any further test for such period as is authorized in the regulations adopted by the secretary pursuant to Section 12212. If tested and sealed and certified to as correct by the National Institute of Standards and Technology, any weight, measure, or weighing or measuring instrument may be sold without being first tested and sealed by a sealer. In either case, it shall be subject to inspection and testing notwithstanding that it has been tested and sealed either by a sealer or by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

12602.

 (a) It is unlawful for any person engaged in the packaging or labeling of any commodity for distribution or sale, or for any person (other than a common carrier for hire, a contract carrier for hire, or a freight forwarder for hire) engaged in the distribution of any packaged or labeled commodity, to distribute or to cause to be distributed any such commodity if the commodity is contained in a package, or if there is affixed to that commodity a label, which does not conform to the provisions of this chapter or the regulations adopted under the authority of this chapter or the provisions of, or the regulations adopted under, Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 13400) or Chapter 15 (commencing with Section 13700).

(b) The prohibition contained in subdivision (a) does not apply to persons engaged in business as wholesale or retail distributors of commodities, except to the extent that those persons (1) are engaged in the packaging or labeling of such commodities, (2) prescribe or specify by any means the manner in which such commodities are packaged or labeled, or (3) have knowledge of the violation of any provision of this chapter or of Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 12665), Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 13400), or Chapter 15 (commencing with Section 13700).

12603.

 No person subject to the prohibition in Section 12602 shall distribute any packaged commodity unless it is in conformity with regulations that shall be established by the secretary that shall provide:

(a) The commodity shall bear a label specifying the identity of the commodity and the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(b) The net quantity of contents (in terms of weight or mass, measure, numerical count, or time) shall be separately and accurately stated in a uniform location upon the principal display panel of that label, using the most appropriate units of both the customary inch-pound system of measure, and except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), the SI (Systeme International d’Unites) metric system.

(c) On a random package labeled in terms of pounds and decimal fractions of the pound, the statement may be carried out to not more than three decimal places and is not required to, but may include a statement in terms of the SI metric system carried out to not more than three decimal places.

(d) The requirements of subdivision (b) concerning labeling using the metric system do not apply to nonconsumer packages, foods that are packaged at the retail store level, or to the sale or distribution of products whose labels have been printed prior to February 14, 1994.

(e) This section shall become operative on February 14, 1994.

12701.

 The following persons are not weighmasters:

(a) Retailers weighing, measuring, or counting commodities for sale by them in retail stores in the presence of, and directly to, consumers.

(b) Except for persons subject to Section 12730, producers of agricultural commodities or livestock, who weigh commodities produced or purchased by them or by their producer neighbors, when no charge is made for the weighing, or when no signed or initialed statement or memorandum is issued of the weight upon which a purchase or sale of the commodity is based.

(c) Common carriers issuing bills of lading on which are recorded, for the purpose of computing transportation charges, the weights of commodities offered for transportation, including carriers of household goods when transporting shipments weighing less than 1,000 pounds.

(d) Milk samplers and weighers licensed pursuant to Article 8 (commencing with Section 35161) of Chapter 12 of Part 1 of Division 15 of the Food and Agricultural Code, when performing the duties for which they are licensed.

(e) Persons who measure the amount of oil, gas, or other fuels for purposes of royalty computation and payment, or other operations of fuel and oil companies and their retail outlets.

(f) Newspaper publishers weighing or counting newspapers for sale to dealers or distributors.

(g) Textile maintenance establishments weighing, counting, or measuring any articles in connection with the business of those establishments.

(h) County sanitation districts operating pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 4700) of Part 3 of Division 5 of the Health and Safety Code, garbage and refuse disposal districts operating pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 49100) of Part 8 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code, and solid waste facilities, as defined in Section 40194 of the Public Resources Code.

(i) Persons who purchase scrap metal or salvage materials pursuant to a nonprofit recycling program, or recycling centers certified pursuant to Division 12.1 (commencing with Section 14500) of the Public Resources Code that purchase empty beverage containers from the public for recycling.

(j) Pest control operators licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11701) of Division 6 of the Food and Agricultural Code.

(k) Retailers, or recycling centers established solely for the redemption of empty beverage containers, as that phrase is defined in Section 14512 of the Public Resources Code, who are weighing, measuring, or counting salvage or returnable materials for purchase or redemption by them in retail stores, or, in the case of recycling centers, on the retail store premises or on a parking lot immediately adjacent to a retail store that is used for the purpose of parking by the store customers, directly from and in the presence of the seller. “Retailer” means an entity that derives 90 percent or more of its income from the sale of small quantities of food or nonfood items, or both, directly to consumers. “Salvage materials” means used paper products and used containers made of aluminum, tin, glass, or plastic.

(l) Any log scaler who performs log scaling functions, except weighing, as defined in the United States Forest Service Handbook, Supplement No. 4 of March 1987.

(m) Pawnbrokers licensed pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 21300) of Division 8 of the Financial Code, and secondhand dealers licensed pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section 21625) of Chapter 9 of Division 8, when the pawnbroker or secondhand dealer weighs property that it acquires and reports the acquisition of the property pursuant to Section 21208 of the Financial Code or Article 4 (commencing with Section 21625) of Chapter 9 of Division 8, respectively.

(n) Facilities that handle medical waste and that report net weights, and not estimates, to the generator of the medical waste and the State Department of Public Health in accordance with the Medical Waste Management Act (Part 14 (commencing with Section 117600) of Division 104 of the Health and Safety Code).

(o) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.

12707.

 Each license required by this chapter shall be renewed annually, on or before the first day of the first month of the licensee’s license year, by application to the secretary, accompanied by the annual license fee. An application and annual license fee sent by mail is not overdue if postmarked not later than the fifth day of the month in which it is due. To any fee not paid when due, there shall be added a penalty equal to 30 percent of the amount of the license fee, if it is paid within 30 days of becoming due. The penalty for a renewal fee more than 30 days after becoming due shall be 100 percent of the amount of the license fee. However, no penalty shall be applicable to the renewal of deputy weighmaster licenses.

12716.

 All weighmasters shall keep and preserve, as records, for a period of four years, all copies of voided certificates, records, and worksheets required by this chapter and true copies of all weighmaster certificates issued. These records shall, at all times, be open for inspection by the secretary.

12717.

 Any weighing, measuring, or counting instrument or device, as defined in Section 12500, which is used by a weighmaster and for which specifications and tolerances have been adopted by the secretary, shall be approved, tested, and sealed in accordance with this division.

12722.

 (a) In accordance with this chapter and regulations adopted by the secretary, any weighmaster may use a tare weight for a vehicle, container, or pallet that has been previously determined by a weighmaster. It is the responsibility of the party for whom the tare weight was established to maintain the tare weight within the variations prescribed by the secretary.

(b) Any weighmaster weighing any vehicle moving earth, stone, rock, sand, gravel, or asphalt paving material may use a predetermined tare weight. The issuance of predetermined tare weights are exempt from the provisions of Division 9 (commencing with Section 4000) of Title 4 of the California Code of Regulations. It is the responsibility of the party for whom the tare weight was established to maintain the actual weight so that the actual tare weight of the vehicle shall at no time exceed the recorded tare weight.

12734.

 Notwithstanding any other provision of this division, the weight of squid, Pacific whiting, or anchovy, certified pursuant to this chapter, may be determined by computation based upon volumetric measurement of containers as prescribed by regulations adopted by the secretary. This section does not apply to squid, Pacific whiting, or anchovy delivered for the purpose of retorting or reducing.

12737.

 (a) Any weighmaster weighing any vehicle moving construction materials, including, but not limited to, earth, stone, rock, sand, gravel, limestone, ready mixed concrete, cementitious materials, recycled construction materials, or asphalt paving materials may use an unattended weighing system to weigh the vehicle and to issue a weighmaster certificate to buyers who opt to utilize the unattended system, provided that the system and the operation of the system comply with regulations or policies issued by the secretary. The name of the principal weighmaster and the unique system identification number of the unattended weighing system utilized shall be imprinted on the weighmaster certificate and this shall satisfy the requirements of subdivision (c) of Section 12715. Nothing in this section impacts existing weighing and ticketing systems.

(b) (1) A weighmaster described in subdivision (a) shall pay the department the following license fee for each license year as applicable to the operation, and the fees set forth in Section 12704 shall not apply:

(A) Two hundred dollars ($200) if the weighmaster is operating at a fixed location.

(B) Seventy-five dollars ($75) for each additional fixed location at which the weighmaster is operating.

(C) Three hundred dollars ($300) if the weighmaster is operating at other than a fixed location.

(D) Fifty dollars ($50) for each deputy weighmaster.

(2) Any fee imposed pursuant to this section shall not exceed the reasonable regulatory costs to the department of enforcing this section.

(c) For purposes of this section:

(1) “License year” means the period of time beginning with the first day of the month the weighmaster is required to be licensed in this state, and ending on the date designated by the secretary for expiration of the license, or yearly intervals after the first renewal.

(2) “Location” means a premise on which weighing, measuring, or counting devices are used.

(3) “Principal weighmaster” means the person or entity identified on the weighmaster certificate, as described in subdivision (b) of Section 12714, that may employ or designate any person to act for the weighmaster as a deputy weighmaster pursuant to Section 12710.

(4) “Unattended weighing system” means an automated system not directly under the supervision of a weighmaster that meets the approval, testing, and sealing requirements of Section 12717.

(d) A weighmaster described in subdivision (a) shall keep the same number of deputy weighmaster licensees as were licensed in the average of the last two years preceding the use of an unattended weighing system.

(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2020, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2020, deletes or extends that date.

12737.

 (a) Any weighmaster weighing any vehicle moving construction materials, including, but not limited to, earth, stone, rock, sand, gravel, limestone, ready mixed concrete, cementitious materials, recycled construction materials, or asphalt paving materials may use an unattended weighing system to weigh the vehicle and to issue a weighmaster certificate to buyers who opt to utilize the unattended system, provided that the system and the operation of the system comply with regulations or policies issued by the secretary. The name of the principal weighmaster and the unique system identification number of the unattended weighing system utilized shall be imprinted on the weighmaster certificate and this shall satisfy the requirements of subdivision (c) of Section 12715. Nothing in this section impacts existing weighing and ticketing systems.

(b) (1) A weighmaster shall pay the department the following license fee for each license year as applicable to the operation:

(A) Seventy-five dollars ($75) if the weighmaster is operating at a fixed location.

(B) Thirty dollars ($30) for each additional fixed location at which the weighmaster is operating.

(C) Two hundred dollars ($200) if the weighmaster is operating at other than a fixed location.

(D) Twenty dollars ($20) for each deputy weighmaster.

(2) Any fee imposed pursuant to this section shall not exceed the reasonable regulatory costs to the department of enforcing this section.

(c) For purposes of this section:

(1) “License year” means the period of time beginning with the first day of the month the weighmaster is required to be licensed in this state, and ending on the date designated by the secretary for expiration of the license, or yearly intervals after the first renewal.

(2) “Location” means a premise on which weighing, measuring, or counting devices are used.

(3) “Principal weighmaster” means the person or entity identified on the weighmaster certificate, as described in subdivision (b) of Section 12714, that may employ or designate any person to act for the weighmaster as a deputy weighmaster pursuant to Section 12710.

(4) “Unattended weighing system” means an automated system not directly under the supervision of a weighmaster that meets the approval, testing, and sealing requirements of Section 12717.

(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.

13432.

 The fees provided in Section 13431 are maximum fees and may be established at a lower rate by the secretary at any time the funds derived from such assessment are more than reasonably necessary to cover the cost of administration and enforcement of this chapter, including the maintenance of a reasonable reserve fund for such purposes.

13433.

 The secretary may, by regulation, prescribe the frequency of payments of such assessments, the procedures for such payment, the procedures for refunds of payment, and penalties for late payment.

13434.

 The moneys which are received by the secretary pursuant to this chapter shall be deposited in the Department of Food and Agriculture Fund and shall be used only for the administration and enforcement of this chapter and Chapter 15 (commencing with Section 13700).

22352.

 At the time of filing the initial certificate of registration, a registrant shall pay the following fees to the county clerk:

(a) A fee of one hundred dollars ($100).

(b) A fee to cover the actual costs of processing the completed request for live scan when submitted with the initial certificate of registration.

(c) A fee to cover the actual cost of issuing a registered process server identification card.

42639.1.

 The county auditor may authorize the destruction of any bill or supporting document received from a school district for purposes of Section 42639 if all of the following conditions are met:

(a) The record, paper, or document is photographed, microphotographed, or reproduced on film of a type approved for permanent photographic records by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

(b) The device used to reproduce such record, paper, or document on film is one which accurately reproduces the original thereof in all details.

(c) The photographs, microphotographs, or other reproductions on film are placed in conveniently accessible files and provision is made for preserving, examining, and using the same.

85239.1.

 The county auditor may authorize the destruction of any bill or supporting document received from a school district for purposes of Section 85239 if all of the following conditions are met:

(a) The record, paper, or document is photographed, microphotographed, or reproduced on film of a type approved for permanent photographic records by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

(b) The device used to reproduce such record, paper, or document on film is one which accurately reproduces the original thereof in all details.

(c) The photographs, microphotographs, or other reproductions on film are placed in conveniently accessible files and provision is made for preserving, examining, and using the same.

1010.

 As used in this article, “psychotherapist” means a person who is, or is reasonably believed by the patient to be:

(a) A person authorized to practice medicine in any state or nation who devotes, or is reasonably believed by the patient to devote, a substantial portion of his or her time to the practice of psychiatry.

(b) A person licensed as a psychologist under Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(c) A person licensed as a clinical social worker under Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 4991) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, when he or she is engaged in applied psychotherapy of a nonmedical nature.

(d) A person who is serving as a school psychologist and holds a credential authorizing that service issued by the state.

(e) A person licensed as a marriage and family therapist under Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 4980) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(f) A person registered as a psychological assistant who is under the supervision of a licensed psychologist or board certified psychiatrist as required by Section 2913 of the Business and Professions Code, or a person registered as an associate marriage and family therapist who is under the supervision of a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed psychologist, or a licensed physician and surgeon certified in psychiatry, as specified in Section 4980.44 of the Business and Professions Code.

(g) A person registered as an associate clinical social worker who is under supervision as specified in Section 4996.23 of the Business and Professions Code.

(h) A person registered with the Board of Psychology as a registered psychologist who is under the supervision of a licensed psychologist or board certified psychiatrist.

(i) A psychological intern as defined in Section 2911 of the Business and Professions Code who is under the supervision of a licensed psychologist or board certified psychiatrist.

(j) A trainee, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions Code, who is fulfilling his or her supervised practicum required by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 4980.36 of, or subdivision (c) of Section 4980.37 of, the Business and Professions Code and is supervised by a licensed psychologist, a board certified psychiatrist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed marriage and family therapist, or a licensed professional clinical counselor.

(k) A person licensed as a registered nurse pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 2700) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, who possesses a master’s degree in psychiatric-mental health nursing and is listed as a psychiatric-mental health nurse by the Board of Registered Nursing.

(l) An advanced practice registered nurse who is certified as a clinical nurse specialist pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section 2838) of Chapter 6 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code and who participates in expert clinical practice in the specialty of psychiatric-mental health nursing.

(m) A person rendering mental health treatment or counseling services as authorized pursuant to Section 6924 of the Family Code.

(n) A person licensed as a professional clinical counselor under Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 4999.10) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(o) A person registered as an associate professional clinical counselor who is under the supervision of a licensed professional clinical counselor, a licensed marriage and family therapist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed psychologist, or a licensed physician and surgeon certified in psychiatry, as specified in Sections 4999.42 to 4999.46, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code.

(p) A clinical counselor trainee, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code, who is fulfilling his or her supervised practicum required by paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.32 of, or paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 4999.33 of, the Business and Professions Code, and is supervised by a licensed psychologist, a board-certified psychiatrist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed marriage and family therapist, or a licensed professional clinical counselor.

424.

 The official colors of the State are blue and gold. The specifications, references, and designations for the official colors are as follows:

Specifications: National Institute of Standards and Technology, Research Paper RP 1700.

International Commission on Illumination:

Blue: Y 0.063 x 0.204 y 0.165

Gold: Y 0.449 x 0.474 y 0.458

Munsell Renotation:

Blue: H V/C 7.3 PB 2.9/8.8

Gold: H V/C 2.0 Y 7.1/11.3

Munsell Book Notation:

Blue: H V/C 7.2 PB 2.9/9.1

Gold: H V/C 1 Y 7.3/11

References: Textile Color Card Association of New York, Inc.

Blue: Yale Blue, cable number 70086, Standard Color Card of America, 9th edition.

Gold: Golden Yellow, cable number 65001, United States Army Card of Official Colors for Arms and Services.

Designations: Inter-Society Color Council-National Bureau of Standards:

Yale Blue: Deep purplish blue.

Golden Yellow: Vivid yellow.

11165.7.

 (a) As used in this article, “mandated reporter” is defined as any of the following:

(1) A teacher.

(2) An instructional aide.

(3) A teacher’s aide or teacher’s assistant employed by a public or private school.

(4) A classified employee of a public school.

(5) An administrative officer or supervisor of child welfare and attendance, or a certificated pupil personnel employee of a public or private school.

(6) An administrator of a public or private day camp.

(7) An administrator or employee of a public or private youth center, youth recreation program, or youth organization.

(8) An administrator, board member, or employee of a public or private organization whose duties require direct contact and supervision of children, including a foster family agency.

(9) An employee of a county office of education or the State Department of Education whose duties bring the employee into contact with children on a regular basis.

(10) A licensee, an administrator, or an employee of a licensed community care or child day care facility.

(11) A Head Start program teacher.

(12) A licensing worker or licensing evaluator employed by a licensing agency, as defined in Section 11165.11.

(13) A public assistance worker.

(14) An employee of a child care institution, including, but not limited to, foster parents, group home personnel, and personnel of residential care facilities.

(15) A social worker, probation officer, or parole officer.

(16) An employee of a school district police or security department.

(17) A person who is an administrator or presenter of, or a counselor in, a child abuse prevention program in a public or private school.

(18) A district attorney investigator, inspector, or local child support agency caseworker, unless the investigator, inspector, or caseworker is working with an attorney appointed pursuant to Section 317 of the Welfare and Institutions Code to represent a minor.

(19) A peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, who is not otherwise described in this section.

(20) A firefighter, except for volunteer firefighters.

(21) A physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, dentist, resident, intern, podiatrist, chiropractor, licensed nurse, dental hygienist, optometrist, marriage and family therapist, clinical social worker, professional clinical counselor, or any other person who is currently licensed under Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and Professions Code.

(22) An emergency medical technician I or II, paramedic, or other person certified pursuant to Division 2.5 (commencing with Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code.

(23) A psychological assistant registered pursuant to Section 2913 of the Business and Professions Code.

(24) A marriage and family therapist trainee, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions Code.

(25) An unlicensed associate marriage and family therapist registered under Section 4980.44 of the Business and Professions Code.

(26) A state or county public health employee who treats a minor for venereal disease or any other condition.

(27) A coroner.

(28) A medical examiner or other person who performs autopsies.

(29) A commercial film and photographic print or image processor as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “commercial film and photographic print or image processor” means a person who develops exposed photographic film into negatives, slides, or prints, or who makes prints from negatives or slides, or who prepares, publishes, produces, develops, duplicates, or prints any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image, for compensation. The term includes any employee of that person; it does not include a person who develops film or makes prints or images for a public agency.

(30) A child visitation monitor. As used in this article, “child visitation monitor” means a person who, for financial compensation, acts as a monitor of a visit between a child and another person when the monitoring of that visit has been ordered by a court of law.

(31) An animal control officer or humane society officer. For the purposes of this article, the following terms have the following meanings:

(A) “Animal control officer” means a person employed by a city, county, or city and county for the purpose of enforcing animal control laws or regulations.

(B) “Humane society officer” means a person appointed or employed by a public or private entity as a humane officer who is qualified pursuant to Section 14502 or 14503 of the Corporations Code.

(32) A clergy member, as specified in subdivision (d) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “clergy member” means a priest, minister, rabbi, religious practitioner, or similar functionary of a church, temple, or recognized denomination or organization.

(33) Any custodian of records of a clergy member, as specified in this section and subdivision (d) of Section 11166.

(34) An employee of any police department, county sheriff’s department, county probation department, or county welfare department.

(35) An employee or volunteer of a Court Appointed Special Advocate program, as defined in Rule 5.655 of the California Rules of Court.

(36) A custodial officer, as defined in Section 831.5.

(37) A person providing services to a minor child under Section 12300 or 12300.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(38) An alcohol and drug counselor. As used in this article, an “alcohol and drug counselor” is a person providing counseling, therapy, or other clinical services for a state licensed or certified drug, alcohol, or drug and alcohol treatment program. However, alcohol or drug abuse, or both alcohol and drug abuse, is not, in and of itself, a sufficient basis for reporting child abuse or neglect.

(39) A clinical counselor trainee, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code.

(40) An associate professional clinical counselor registered under Section 4999.42 of the Business and Professions Code.

(41) An employee or administrator of a public or private postsecondary educational institution, whose duties bring the administrator or employee into contact with children on a regular basis, or who supervises those whose duties bring the administrator or employee into contact with children on a regular basis, as to child abuse or neglect occurring on that institution’s premises or at an official activity of, or program conducted by, the institution. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as altering the lawyer-client privilege as set forth in Article 3 (commencing with Section 950) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code.

(42) An athletic coach, athletic administrator, or athletic director employed by any public or private school that provides any combination of instruction for kindergarten, or grades 1 to 12, inclusive.

(43) (A) A commercial computer technician as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “commercial computer technician” means a person who works for a company that is in the business of repairing, installing, or otherwise servicing a computer or computer component, including, but not limited to, a computer part, device, memory storage or recording mechanism, auxiliary storage recording or memory capacity, or any other material relating to the operation and maintenance of a computer or computer network system, for a fee. An employer who provides an electronic communications service or a remote computing service to the public shall be deemed to comply with this article if that employer complies with Section 2258A of Title 18 of the United States Code.

(B) An employer of a commercial computer technician may implement internal procedures for facilitating reporting consistent with this article. These procedures may direct employees who are mandated reporters under this paragraph to report materials described in subdivision (e) of Section 11166 to an employee who is designated by the employer to receive the reports. An employee who is designated to receive reports under this subparagraph shall be a commercial computer technician for purposes of this article. A commercial computer technician who makes a report to the designated employee pursuant to this subparagraph shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements of this article and shall be subject to the protections afforded to mandated reporters, including, but not limited to, those protections afforded by Section 11172.

(44) Any athletic coach, including, but not limited to, an assistant coach or a graduate assistant involved in coaching, at public or private postsecondary educational institutions.

(45) An individual certified by a licensed foster family agency as a certified family home, as defined in Section 1506 of the Health and Safety Code.

(46) An individual approved as a resource family, as defined in Section 1517 of the Health and Safety Code and Section 16519.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (35) of subdivision (a), volunteers of public or private organizations whose duties require direct contact with and supervision of children are not mandated reporters but are encouraged to obtain training in the identification and reporting of child abuse and neglect and are further encouraged to report known or suspected instances of child abuse or neglect to an agency specified in Section 11165.9.

(c) Except as provided in subdivision (d), employers are strongly encouraged to provide their employees who are mandated reporters with training in the duties imposed by this article. This training shall include training in child abuse and neglect identification and training in child abuse and neglect reporting. Whether or not employers provide their employees with training in child abuse and neglect identification and reporting, the employers shall provide their employees who are mandated reporters with the statement required pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 11166.5.

(d) Pursuant to Section 44691 of the Education Code, school districts, county offices of education, state special schools and diagnostic centers operated by the State Department of Education, and charter schools shall annually train their employees and persons working on their behalf specified in subdivision (a) in the duties of mandated reporters under the child abuse reporting laws. The training shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, training in child abuse and neglect identification and child abuse and neglect reporting.

(e) (1) On and after January 1, 2018, pursuant to Section 1596.8662 of the Health and Safety Code, a child care licensee applicant shall take training in the duties of mandated reporters under the child abuse reporting laws as a condition of licensure, and a child care administrator or an employee of a licensed child day care facility shall take training in the duties of mandated reporters during the first 90 days when he or she is employed by the facility.

(2) A person specified in paragraph (1) who becomes a licensee, administrator, or employee of a licensed child day care facility shall take renewal mandated reporter training every two years following the date on which he or she completed the initial mandated reporter training. The training shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, training in child abuse and neglect identification and child abuse and neglect reporting.

(f) Unless otherwise specifically provided, the absence of training shall not excuse a mandated reporter from the duties imposed by this article.

(g) Public and private organizations are encouraged to provide their volunteers whose duties require direct contact with and supervision of children with training in the identification and reporting of child abuse and neglect.