205.

 (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:

(1) Accountancy Fund.

(2) California Architects Board Fund.

(3) Athletic Commission Fund.

(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.

(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.

(6) Contractors License Fund.

(7) State Dentistry Fund.

(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.

(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.

(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.

(11) Optometry Fund.

(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.

(13) Physical Therapy Fund.

(14) Private Security Services Fund.

(15) Professional Engineer’s, Land Surveyor’s, and Geologist’s Fund.

(16) Consumer Affairs Fund.

(17) Behavioral Sciences Fund.

(18) Licensed Midwifery Fund.

(19) Court Reporters’ Fund.

(20) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.

(21) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.

(22) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.

(23) Acupuncture Fund.

(24) Physician Assistant Fund.

(25) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.

(26) Psychology Fund.

(27) Respiratory Care Fund.

(28) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.

(29) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.

(30) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.

(31) State Dental Hygiene Fund.

(32) Structural Pest Control Fund.

(33) Structural Pest Control Education and Enforcement Fund.

(34) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.

(35) Household Movers Fund.

(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.

1753.55.

 (a) A registered dental assistant in extended functions is authorized to perform the additional duties as set forth in subdivision (b) pursuant to the order, control, and full professional responsibility of a supervising dentist, if the licensee meets one of the following requirements:

(1) Is licensed on or after January 1, 2010.

(2) Is licensed before January 1, 2010, and has successfully completed a board-approved course in the additional procedures specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (5), and (7) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 1753.5.

(b) (1) Determine which radiographs to perform on a patient who has not received an initial examination by the supervising dentist for the specific purpose of the dentist making a diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient. In these circumstances, the dental assistant in extended functions shall follow protocols established by the supervising dentist. This paragraph only applies in the following settings:

(A) In a dental office setting.

(B) In public health settings, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics, under the general supervision of a dentist.

(2) Place protective restorations, which for this purpose are identified as interim therapeutic restorations, and defined as a direct provisional restoration placed to stabilize the tooth until a licensed dentist diagnoses the need for further definitive treatment. An interim therapeutic restoration consists of the removal of soft material from the tooth using only hand instrumentation, without the use of rotary instrumentation, and subsequent placement of an adhesive restorative material. Local anesthesia shall not be necessary for interim therapeutic restoration placement. Interim therapeutic restorations shall be placed only in accordance with both of the following:

(A) In either of the following settings:

(i) In a dental office setting, under the direct or general supervision of a dentist as determined by the dentist.

(ii) In public health settings, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics, under the general supervision of a dentist.

(B) After the diagnosis, treatment plan, and instruction to perform the procedure provided by a dentist.

(c) The functions described in subdivision (b) may be performed by a registered dental assistant in extended functions only after completion of a program that includes training in performing those functions, or after providing evidence, satisfactory to the board, of having completed a board-approved course in those functions.

(d) No later than January 1, 2018, the board shall adopt regulations to establish requirements for courses of instruction for the procedures authorized to be performed by a registered dental assistant in extended functions pursuant to this section using the competency-based training protocols established by the Health Workforce Pilot Project (HWPP) No. 172 through the Department of Health Care Access and Information. The board shall submit to the committee proposed regulatory language for the curriculum for the Interim Therapeutic Restoration to the committee for the purpose of promulgating regulations for registered dental hygienists and registered dental hygienists in alternative practice as described in Section 1910.5. The language submitted by the board shall mirror the instructional curriculum for the registered dental assistant in extended functions. Any subsequent amendments to the regulations that are promulgated by the board for the Interim Therapeutic Restoration curriculum shall be submitted to the committee.

(e) The board may issue a permit to a registered dental assistant in extended functions who files a completed application, including the fee, to provide the duties specified in this section after the board has determined the registered dental assistant in extended functions has completed the coursework required in subdivision (c).

(f) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.

1910.5.

 (a) In addition to the duties specified in Section 1910, a registered dental hygienist is authorized to perform the following additional duties, as specified:

(1) Determine which radiographs to perform on a patient who has not received an initial examination by the supervising dentist for the specific purpose of the dentist making a diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient. In these circumstances, the dental hygienist shall follow protocols established by the supervising dentist. This paragraph only applies in the following settings:

(A) In a dental office setting.

(B) In a public health setting, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics.

(2) Place protective restorations, which for this purpose are identified as interim therapeutic restorations, and defined as a direct provisional restoration placed to stabilize the tooth until a licensed dentist diagnoses the need for further definitive treatment. An interim therapeutic restoration consists of the removal of soft material from the tooth using only hand instrumentation, without the use of rotary instrumentation, and subsequent placement of an adhesive restorative material. Local anesthesia shall not be necessary for interim therapeutic restoration placement. Interim therapeutic restorations shall be placed only in accordance with both of the following:

(A) In either of the following settings:

(i) In a dental office setting.

(ii) In a public health setting, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics.

(B) After the diagnosis, treatment plan, and instruction to perform the procedure provided by a dentist.

(b) The functions described in subdivision (a) may be performed by a registered dental hygienist only after completion of a program that includes training in performing those functions, or after providing evidence, satisfactory to the dental hygiene board, of having completed a dental hygiene board-approved course in those functions.

(c) No later than January 1, 2018, the dental hygiene board shall adopt regulations to establish requirements for courses of instruction for the procedures authorized to be performed by a registered dental hygienist and registered dental hygienist in alternative practice pursuant to Sections 1910.5 and 1926.05, using the competency-based training protocols established by the Health Workforce Pilot Project (HWPP) No. 172 through the Department of Health Care Access and Information. The dental hygiene board shall use the curriculum submitted by the board pursuant to Section 1753.55 to adopt regulatory language for approval of courses of instruction for the interim therapeutic restoration. Any subsequent amendments to the regulations for the interim therapeutic restoration curriculum that are promulgated by the dental hygiene board shall be agreed upon by the board and the dental hygiene board.

(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.

1922.

 The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:

(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:

(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.

(2) Has successfully completed a bachelor’s degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.

(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Department of Health Care Access and Information pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code.

1926.

 In addition to practices authorized in Section 1925, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may perform the duties authorized pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1907, subdivision (a) of Section 1908, and subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 1910 in the following settings:

(a) Residences of the homebound.

(b) Schools.

(c) Residential facilities and other institutions and medical settings that a residential facility patient has been transferred to for outpatient services.

(d) Dental health professional shortage areas, as certified by the Department of Health Care Access and Information in accordance with existing office guidelines.

(e) Dental offices.

1926.01.

 (a) In addition to practices authorized in Section 1925, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice may perform the duties authorized pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 1909 with documented consultation with a collaborating dentist in the following settings:

(1) Residences of the homebound.

(2) Residential facilities and other institutions and medical settings that a residential facility patient has been transferred to for outpatient services.

(3) Dental health professional shortage areas, as certified by the Department of Health Care Access and Information in accordance with existing office guidelines.

(4) Dental offices.

(b) The registered dental hygienist in alternative practice shall have all of the following immediately available when services authorized in this section are being performed:

(1) One additional individual trained in basic life support qualified to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation during an emergency.

(2) Equipment and supplies for emergency response, including oxygen.

1926.05.

 (a) In addition to the duties specified in Section 1926, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice is authorized to perform the duties pursuant to Section 1910.5, in the following settings:

(1) Residences of the homebound.

(2) Schools.

(3) Residential facilities and other institutions.

(4) Dental or medical settings.

(5) Dental health professional shortage areas, as certified by the Department of Health Care Access and Information in accordance with existing office guidelines.

(b) A registered dental hygienist in alternative practice is authorized to perform the duties pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1910.5 in the settings specified in this section after there has been a diagnosis, treatment plan, and instruction to perform the procedure provided by a dentist.

1936.1.

 (a) The dental hygiene board shall require, as a condition of license renewal, that licensees submit assurances satisfactory to the dental hygiene board that they had, during the preceding two-year period, informed themselves of the developments in the practice of dental hygiene occurring since the original issuance of their licenses by pursuing one or more courses of study satisfactory to the dental hygiene board, or by other means deemed equivalent by the dental hygiene board. The dental hygiene board shall adopt, amend, and revoke regulations providing for the suspension of the licenses at the end of the two-year period until compliance with the assurances provided for in this section is accomplished. The dental hygiene board shall conduct random audits of at least 5 percent of the licensee population each year to ensure compliance of the continuing education requirement.

(b) The dental hygiene board shall also, as a condition of license renewal, require licensees to successfully complete a portion of the required continuing education hours in specific areas adopted in regulations by the dental hygiene board. The dental hygiene board may prescribe this mandatory coursework within the general areas of patient care, health and safety, and law and ethics. The mandatory coursework prescribed by the dental hygiene board shall not exceed seven and one-half hours per renewal period. Any mandatory coursework required by the dental hygiene board shall be credited toward the continuing education requirements established by the dental hygiene board pursuant to subdivision (a).

(c) The providers of courses referred to in this section shall be approved by the dental hygiene board. Providers approved by the dental board shall be deemed approved by the dental hygiene board.

2023.5.

 (a) The board, in conjunction with the Board of Registered Nursing, and in consultation with the Physician Assistant Board and professionals in the field, shall review issues and problems surrounding the use of laser or intense light pulse devices for elective cosmetic procedures by physicians and surgeons, nurses, and physician assistants. The review shall include, but need not be limited to, all of the following:

(1) The appropriate level of physician supervision needed.

(2) The appropriate level of training to ensure competency.

(3) Guidelines for standardized procedures and protocols that address, at a minimum, all of the following:

(A) Patient selection.

(B) Patient education, instruction, and informed consent.

(C) Use of topical agents.

(D) Procedures to be followed in the event of complications or side effects from the treatment.

(E) Procedures governing emergency and urgent care situations.

(b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to modify the prohibition against the unlicensed practice of medicine.

2240.

 (a) A physician and surgeon who performs a medical procedure outside of a general acute care hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, that results in the death of any patient on whom that medical treatment was performed by the physician and surgeon, or by a person acting under the physician and surgeon’s orders or supervision, shall report, in writing on a form prescribed by the board, that occurrence to the board within 15 days after the occurrence.

(b) A physician and surgeon who performs a scheduled medical procedure outside of a general acute care hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, that results in the transfer to a hospital or emergency center for medical treatment for a period exceeding 24 hours, of any patient on whom that medical treatment was performed by the physician and surgeon, or by a person acting under the physician and surgeon’s orders or supervision, shall report, in writing, on a form prescribed by the board that occurrence, within 15 days after the occurrence. The form shall contain all of the following information:

(1) Name of the patient’s physician in the outpatient setting.

(2) Name of the physician with hospital privileges.

(3) Name of the patient and patient identifying information.

(4) Name of the hospital or emergency center where the patient was transferred.

(5) Type of outpatient procedures being performed.

(6) Events triggering the transfer.

(7) Duration of the hospital stay.

(8) Final disposition or status, if not released from the hospital, of the patient.

(9) Physician’s practice specialty and ABMS certification, if applicable.

(c) The form described in subdivision (b) shall be constructed in a format to enable the physician and surgeon to transmit the information in paragraphs (5) to (9), inclusive, to the board in a manner that the physician and surgeon and the patient are anonymous and their identifying information is not transmitted to the board. The entire form containing information described in paragraphs (1) to (9), inclusive, shall be placed in the patient’s medical record.

(d) The board shall aggregate the data and publish an annual report on the information collected pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b).

(e) On and after January 1, 2002, the data required in subdivision (b) shall be sent to the Department of Health Care Access and Information instead of the board. The Department of Health Care Access and Information may revise the reporting requirements to fit state and national standards, as applicable. The board shall work with the Department of Health Care Access and Information in developing the reporting mechanism to satisfy the data collection requirements of this section.

(f) The failure to comply with this section constitutes unprofessional conduct.

2401.

 (a) Notwithstanding Section 2400, a clinic operated primarily for the purpose of medical education by a public or private nonprofit university medical school, which is approved by the board or the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may charge for professional services rendered to teaching patients by licensees who hold academic appointments on the faculty of the university, if the charges are approved by the physician and surgeon in whose name the charges are made.

(b) Notwithstanding Section 2400, a clinic operated under subdivision (p) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code may employ licensees and charge for professional services rendered by those licensees. However, the clinic shall not interfere with, control, or otherwise direct the professional judgment of a physician and surgeon in a manner prohibited by Section 2400 or any other law.

(c) Notwithstanding Section 2400, a narcotic treatment program operated under Section 11876 of the Health and Safety Code and regulated by the State Department of Health Care Services, may employ licensees and charge for professional services rendered by those licensees. However, the narcotic treatment program shall not interfere with, control, or otherwise direct the professional judgment of a physician and surgeon in a manner prohibited by Section 2400 or any other law.

(d) Notwithstanding Section 2400, a hospital that is owned and operated by a licensed charitable organization, that offers only pediatric subspecialty care, that, before January 1, 2013, employed licensees on a salary basis, and that has not charged for professional services rendered to patients may, commencing January 1, 2013, charge for professional services rendered to patients, provided the following conditions are met:

(1) The hospital does not increase the number of salaried licensees by more than five licensees each year.

(2) The hospital does not expand its scope of services beyond pediatric subspecialty care.

(3) The hospital accepts each patient needing its scope of services regardless of the patient’s ability to pay, including whether the patient has any form of health care coverage.

(4) The medical staff concur by an affirmative vote that the licensee’s employment is in the best interest of the communities served by the hospital.

(5) The hospital does not interfere with, control, or otherwise direct a physician and surgeon’s professional judgment in a manner prohibited by Section 2400 or any other law.

(e) (1) Notwithstanding Section 2400, until January 1, 2024, a federally certified critical access hospital may employ licensees and charge for professional services rendered by those licensees to patients, provided both of the following conditions are met:

(A) The medical staff concur by an affirmative vote that the licensee’s employment is in the best interest of the communities served by the hospital.

(B) The hospital does not interfere with, control, or otherwise direct a physician and surgeon’s professional judgment in a manner prohibited by Section 2400 or any other law.

(2) (A) On or before July 1, 2023, the Department of Health Care Access and Information shall provide a report to the Legislature containing data about the impact of paragraph (1) on federally certified critical access hospitals and their ability to recruit and retain physicians and surgeons between January 1, 2017, and January 1, 2023, inclusive. This report shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code. The requirement for submitting a report imposed under this subparagraph is inoperative on July 1, 2027.

(B) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall determine the format of the report, as well as the methods and data elements to be utilized in the development of the report.

(C) On and after July 1, 2017, a federally certified critical access hospital that is employing licensees and charging for professional services rendered by those licensees to patients under this section shall submit to the office, on or before July 1 of each year, a report for any year in which that hospital has employed or is employing licensees and charging for professional services rendered by those licensees to patients. The report shall include data elements as required by the office and shall be submitted in a format as required by the Department of Health Care Access and Information. The requirement for submitting reports imposed under this subparagraph shall be inoperative on July 1, 2023.

2435.1.

 (a) In addition to the fees charged for the initial issuance or biennial renewal of a physician and surgeon’s certificate pursuant to Section 2435, and at the time those fees are charged, the board shall charge each applicant or renewing licensee an additional twenty-five dollar ($25) fee for the purposes of this section.

(b) Payment of this twenty-five dollar ($25) fee shall be voluntary, paid at the time of application for initial licensure or biennial renewal, and due and payable along with the fee for the initial certificate or biennial renewal.

(c) The board shall transfer all funds collected pursuant to this section, on a monthly basis, to the Department of Health Care Access and Information to augment the local assistance line item of the annual Budget Act in support of the Song-Brown Family Physician Training Act (Article 1 (commencing with Section 128200) of Chapter 4 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code).

2516.

 (a) Each licensed midwife who assists, or supervises a student midwife in assisting, in childbirth that occurs in an out-of-hospital setting shall annually report to the Department of Health Care Access and Information. The report shall be submitted no later than March 30, for the prior calendar year, in a form specified by the board and shall contain all of the following:

(1) The midwife’s name and license number.

(2) The calendar year being reported.

(3) The following information with regard to cases in California in which the midwife, or the student midwife supervised by the midwife, assisted during the previous year when the intended place of birth at the onset of care was an out-of-hospital setting:

(A) The total number of clients served as primary caregiver at the onset of care.

(B) The number by county of live births attended as primary caregiver.

(C) The number, by county, of cases of fetal demise, infant deaths, and maternal deaths attended as primary caregiver at the discovery of the demise or death.

(D) The number of women whose primary care was transferred to another health care practitioner during the antepartum period, and the reason for each transfer.

(E) The number, reason, and outcome for each elective hospital transfer during the intrapartum or postpartum period.

(F) The number, reason, and outcome for each urgent or emergency transport of an expectant mother in the antepartum period.

(G) The number, reason, and outcome for each urgent or emergency transport of an infant or mother during the intrapartum or immediate postpartum period.

(H) The number of planned out-of-hospital births at the onset of labor and the number of births completed in an out-of-hospital setting.

(I) The number of planned out-of-hospital births completed in an out-of-hospital setting that were any of the following:

(i) Twin births.

(ii) Multiple births other than twin births.

(iii) Breech births.

(iv) Vaginal births after the performance of a cesarean section.

(J) A brief description of any complications resulting in the morbidity or mortality of a mother or a neonate.

(K) Any other information prescribed by the board in regulations.

(b) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall maintain the confidentiality of the information submitted pursuant to this section, and shall not permit any law enforcement or regulatory agency to inspect or have copies made of the contents of any reports submitted pursuant to subdivision (a) for any purpose, including, but not limited to, investigations for licensing, certification, or regulatory purposes.

(c) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall report to the board, by April 30, those licensees who have met the requirements of subdivision (a) for that year.

(d) The board shall send a written notice of noncompliance to each licensee who fails to meet the reporting requirement of subdivision (a). Failure to comply with subdivision (a) will result in the midwife being unable to renew their license without first submitting the requisite data to the Department of Health Care Access and Information for the year for which that data was missing or incomplete. The board shall not take any other action against the licensee for failure to comply with subdivision (a).

(e) The board, in consultation with the Department of Health Care Access and Information and the Midwifery Advisory Council, shall devise a coding system related to data elements that require coding in order to assist in both effective reporting and the aggregation of data pursuant to subdivision (f). The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall utilize this coding system in its processing of information collected for purposes of subdivision (f).

(f) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall report the aggregate information collected pursuant to this section to the board by July 30 of each year. The board shall include this information in its annual report to the Legislature.

(g) The board, with input from the Midwifery Advisory Council, may adjust the data elements required to be reported to better coordinate with other reporting systems, including the reporting system of the Midwives Alliance of North America (MANA), while maintaining the data elements unique to California. To better capture data needed for the report required by this section, the concurrent use of systems, including MANA’s, by licensed midwives is encouraged.

(h) Notwithstanding any other law, a violation of this section shall not be a crime.

2746.55.

 (a) For all maternal or neonatal transfers to the hospital setting during labor or the immediate postpartum period, for which the intended place of birth was an out-of-hospital setting at the onset of labor, or for any maternal, fetal, or neonatal death that occurred in the out-of-hospital setting during labor or the immediate postpartum period, and for which the intended birth care provider is a certified nurse-midwife in the out-of-hospital setting, the department shall collect, and the certified nurse-midwife shall be required to submit, within 90 days of the transfer or death, the following data in the form determined by the department. The data shall include all of the following:

(1) Attendant’s name, for the certified nurse-midwife who attended the patient at the time of transfer, or who attended the patient at the time of maternal, fetal, or neonatal death.

(2) Attendant’s license number, for the certified nurse-midwife who attended the patient at the time of transfer, or who attended the patient at the time of maternal, fetal, or neonatal death.

(3) The child’s date of delivery for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(4) The sex of the child, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(5) The date of birth of the parent giving birth.

(6) The date of birth of the parent not giving birth.

(7) The residence ZIP Code of the parent giving birth.

(8) The residence county of the parent giving birth.

(9) The weight of the parent giving birth (prepregnancy weight and delivery weight of parent giving birth).

(10) The height of the parent giving birth.

(11) The race and ethnicity of the genetic parents, unless the parent declines to disclose.

(12) The obstetric estimate of gestation (completed weeks), at time of transfer.

(13) The total number of prior live births.

(14) The principal source of payment code for delivery.

(15) Any complications and procedures of pregnancy and concurrent illnesses up until time of transfer or death.

(16) Any complications and procedures of labor and delivery up until time of transfer or death.

(17) Any abnormal conditions and clinical procedures related to the newborn up until time of transfer or death.

(18) Fetal presentation at birth, or up until time of transfer.

(19) Whether this pregnancy is a multiple pregnancy (more than one fetus this pregnancy).

(20) Whether the patient has had a previous cesarean section.

(21) If the patient had a previous cesarean, indicate how many.

(22) The intended place of birth at the onset of labor, including, but not limited to, home, freestanding birth center, hospital, clinic, doctor’s office, or other location.

(23) Whether there was a maternal death.

(24) Whether there was a fetal death.

(25) Whether there was a neonatal death.

(26) Hospital transfer during the intrapartum or postpartum period, including, who was transferred (mother, infant, or both) and the complications, abnormal conditions, or other indications that resulted in the transfer.

(27) The name of the transfer hospital, or other hospital identification method as required, such as the hospital identification number.

(28) The county of the transfer hospital.

(29) The ZIP Code of the transfer hospital.

(30) The date of the transfer.

(31) Other information as prescribed by the State Department of Public Health.

(b) In the event of a maternal, fetal, or neonatal death that occurred in an out-of-hospital setting during labor or the immediate postpartum period, a certified nurse-midwife shall submit to the department, within 90 days of the death, all of the following data in addition to the data required in subdivision (a):

(1) The date of the maternal, neonatal, or fetal death.

(2) The place of delivery, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(3) The county of the place of delivery, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(4) The ZIP Code of the place of delivery, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(5) The APGAR scores, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(6) The birthweight, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(7) The method of delivery, for births attended by the nurse-midwife.

(c) The data submitted pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) shall be in addition to the certificate of live birth information required pursuant to Sections 102425 and 102426 of the Health and Safety Code.

(d) For those cases that involve a hospital transfer, the department shall link the data submitted by the certified nurse-midwife, pursuant to subdivision (a), to the live birth data reported by hospitals to the department, pursuant to Sections 102425 and 102426 of the Health and Safety Code, and to the patient discharge data that reflects the birth hospitalization and reported by hospitals to the Department of Health Care Access and Information, so that additional data reflecting the outcome can be incorporated into the aggregated reports submitted pursuant to subdivision (i).

(e) The department may adjust, improve, or expand the data elements required to be reported pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) to better coordinate with other data collection and reporting systems, or in order to collect more accurate data, as long as the minimum data elements in subdivisions (a) and (b) are preserved.

(f) The department shall treat the information and data gathered pursuant to this section, for the creation of the reports described in subdivision (i), as confidential records, and shall not permit the disclosure of any patient or certified nurse-midwife information to any law enforcement or regulatory agency for any purpose, including, but not limited to, investigations for licensing, certification, or regulatory purposes. This subdivision shall not prevent the department from responding to inquiries from the Board of Registered Nursing as to whether a licensee has reported pursuant to this section.

(g) The information collected by the department pursuant to this section, and not otherwise subject to current confidentiality requirements, shall be treated as confidential records and shall only be made available for use consistent with paragraph (1) of, paragraph (4) of, and subparagraph (A) of paragraph (8) of, subdivision (a) of Section 102430 of the Health and Safety Code and pursuant to the application, review, and approval process established by the department pursuant to Section 102465 of the Health Safety Code.

(h) At the time of each certified nurse-midwife’s license renewal, the Board of Registered Nursing shall send a written notification to the certified nurse-midwife notifying them of the mandated vital records reporting requirements for out-of-hospital births pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) and Section 102415 of the Health and Safety Code and that a violation of this section shall subject the certified nurse-midwife to disciplinary or administrative action by the board.

(i) (1) The department shall report to the Legislature on the data collected pursuant to this section. The report shall include the aggregate information, including, but not limited to, birth outcomes of patients under the care of a certified nurse-midwife in an out-of-hospital setting at the onset of labor, collected pursuant to this section and Sections 102425 and 102426 of the Health and Safety Code.

(2) The first report, to reflect a 12-month period of time, shall be submitted no later than four and one-half years after the State Department of Public Health receives an appropriation as specified in subdivision (m) and each subsequent report reflecting a 12-month reporting period shall be submitted annually to the Legislature every year thereafter.

(3) A report required under this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(j) All reports, including those submitted to the Legislature or made publicly available, shall utilize standard public health reporting practices for accurate dissemination of these data elements, specifically in regards to the reporting of small numbers in a way that does not risk a confidentiality or other disclosure breach. No identifying information in regards to the patient or the nurse-midwife shall be disclosed in the reports submitted pursuant to subdivision (i).

(k) A violation of this section shall subject the certified nurse-midwife to disciplinary or administrative action by the Board of Registered Nursing.

(l) For purposes of this section, “department” means the State Department of Public Health.

(m) This section shall become operative only upon the Legislature making an appropriation to implement the provisions of this section.

3502.4.

 (a) In order to receive authority from the physician assistant’s supervising physician and surgeon to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, a physician assistant shall complete training either through training programs approved by the board pursuant to Section 3513 or by training to perform medical services that augment the physician assistant’s current areas of competency pursuant to Section 1399.543 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. Beginning January 1, 2014, and until January 1, 2016, the training and clinical competency protocols established by Health Workforce Pilot Project (HWPP) No. 171 through the Department of Health Care Access and Information shall be used as training and clinical competency guidelines to meet this requirement.

(b) In order to receive authority from the physician assistant’s supervising physician and surgeon to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, a physician assistant shall comply with protocols developed in compliance with Section 3502 that specify:

(1) The extent of supervision by a physician and surgeon with relevant training and expertise.

(2) Procedures for transferring patients to the care of the physician and surgeon or a hospital.

(3) Procedures for obtaining assistance and consultation from a physician and surgeon.

(4) Procedures for providing emergency care until physician assistance and consultation are available.

(5) The method of periodic review of the provisions of the protocols.

(c) The training protocols established by HWPP No. 171 shall be deemed to meet the standards of the board. A physician assistant who has completed training and achieved clinical competency through HWPP No. 171 shall be authorized to perform abortions by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, in adherence to protocols described in subdivision (b).

(d) It is unprofessional conduct for any physician assistant to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253 without prior completion of training and validation of clinical competency.

3502.4.

 (a) In order to receive authority from the physician assistant’s supervising physician and surgeon to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, a physician assistant shall complete training either through training programs approved by the board pursuant to Section 3513 or by training to perform medical services that augment the physician assistant’s current areas of competency pursuant to Section 1399.543 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. Beginning January 1, 2014, and until January 1, 2016, the training and clinical competency protocols established by Health Workforce Pilot Project (HWPP) No. 171 through the Department of Health Care Access and Information shall be used as training and clinical competency guidelines to meet this requirement.

(b) In order to receive authority from the physician assistant’s supervising physician and surgeon to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, a physician assistant shall comply with protocols developed in compliance with Section 3502 that specify:

(1) The extent of supervision by a physician and surgeon with relevant training and expertise.

(2) Procedures for transferring patients to the care of the physician and surgeon or a hospital.

(3) Procedures for obtaining assistance and consultation from a physician and surgeon.

(4) Procedures for providing emergency care until physician assistance and consultation are available.

(5) The method of periodic review of the provisions of the protocols.

(c) The training protocols established by HWPP No. 171 shall be deemed to meet the standards of the board. A physician assistant who has completed training and achieved clinical competency through HWPP No. 171 shall be authorized to perform abortions by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253, in adherence to protocols described in subdivision (b).

(d) It is unprofessional conduct for any physician assistant to perform an abortion by aspiration techniques pursuant to Section 2253 without prior completion of training and validation of clinical competency.

(e) The board shall not suspend or revoke the license of a physician assistant solely for performing an abortion if the licensee performed the abortion in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and the Reproductive Privacy Act (Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 123460) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 106 of the Health and Safety Code).

(f) Notwithstanding any other law, including, but not limited to, Sections 141, 480, 490, and 3527, the board shall not deny an application for licensure as a physician assistant, or suspend, revoke, or otherwise impose discipline upon a person licensed in this state as a physician assistant under either of the following circumstances:

(1) The person is licensed or certified to practice as a physician assistant in another state and was disciplined in that state solely for performing an abortion in that state.

(2) The person is licensed or certified to practice as a physician assistant in another state and was convicted in that state for an offense related solely to the performance of an abortion in that state.

3520.

 Within 10 days after the beginning of each calendar month, the board shall report to the Controller the amount and source of all collections made under this chapter and at the same time pay all those sums into the State Treasury, where they shall be credited to the Physician Assistant Fund, which fund is hereby created. All money in the fund shall be available, upon appropriation of the Legislature, to carry out the purpose of this chapter.

3537.10.

 (a) Subject to the other provisions of this article, the Department of Health Care Access and Information, hereafter in this article referred to as the department, shall coordinate the establishment of an international medical graduate physician assistant training program, to be conducted at an appropriate educational institution or institutions. The goal of the program shall be to place as many international medical graduate physician assistants in medically underserved areas as possible in order to provide greater access to care for the growing population of medically indigent and underserved. The method for accomplishing this goal shall be to train foreign medical graduates to become licensed as physician assistants at no cost to the participants in return for a commitment from the participants to serve full time in underserved areas for a four-year period.

(b) By February 1, 1994, or one month after federal funds to implement this article become available, whichever occurs later, the department shall establish a training program advisory task force. The task force shall be comprised of representatives from all of the following groups:

(1) Physician assistant program directors.

(2) Foreign medical graduates.

(3) The California Academy of Physician Assistants.

(4) Nonprofit community health center directors.

(5) Physicians.

(6) The board, at the board’s option.

The department may, instead, serve solely as a consultant to the task force.

(c) The task force shall do all of the following:

(1) Develop a recommended curriculum for the training program that shall be from 12 to 15 months in duration and shall, at a minimum, meet curriculum standards consistent with the board’s regulations. The program shall be subject to the board’s approval. By April 1, 1994, or three months after federal funds to implement this article become available, whichever occurs later, the curriculum shall be presented by the department to the Committee on Allied Health Education and Accreditation of the American Medical Association, or its successor organization, for approval.

(2) Develop recommended admission criteria for participation in the pilot and ongoing program.

(3) Assist in development of linkages with academic institutions for the purpose of monitoring and evaluating the pilot program.

3537.15.

 (a) Before establishing an ongoing international medical graduate physician assistant training program, the Department of Health Care Access and Information shall coordinate the establishment of a pilot program commencing September 1, 1994, or eight months after federal funds to implement this article become available, whichever occurs later, to test the validity and effectiveness of the recommended training curriculum developed by the task force. The task force shall, with the advice and assistance of the academic institutions offering the pilot program curriculum, and subject to their approval, select 10 international medical graduates to participate in the pilot program.

(b) After two classes have graduated from the pilot program, the task force, with the advice and assistance of the academic institutions, shall evaluate the results of the pilot program, to determine whether a permanent program should be established. The department may modify curriculum as needed and make appropriate revisions in order to ensure program integrity and compliance with established standards. Any permanent international medical graduate physician assistant training program shall commence at the beginning of the year following the completion of the evaluation.

3537.25.

 Both the pilot and the ongoing training program shall provide training at no cost to the participants in return for a written, enforceable agreement by the participants to, upon obtaining licensure under this article, serve a minimum of four years as a full-time physician assistant in an area of California designated by the Department of Health Care Access and Information as a medically underserved area pursuant to Section 3537.35.

3537.30.

 (a) The Legislature recognizes that the goal of this program would be compromised if participants do not observe their commitments under this program to provide the required service in a medically underserved area. The goal of this program would not be met if all that it accomplished was merely to license physician assistants that served populations that are not medically underserved.

(b) Since damages would be difficult or impossible to ascertain in the event of default by the participant, this section shall set forth the extent of liquidated damages that shall be recoverable by the program in the case of default.

(c) In the case of default by a participant who has successfully completed the program and has obtained licensure under this article, the program shall collect the following damages from the participant:

(1) The total cost expended by the program for the training of the applicant, and interest thereon from the date of default.

(2) The total amount needed for the program to seek cover as set forth in subdivision (b) of Section 3537.35.

(3) The costs of enforcement, including, but not limited to, the costs of collecting the liquidated damages, the costs of litigation, and attorney’s fees.

(d) The Attorney General may represent the department, or the board, or both in any litigation necessitated by this article, or, if the Attorney General declines, the department, or the board, or both may hire other counsel for this purpose.

(e) Funds collected pursuant to subdivision (c) shall be allocated as follows:

(1) Costs of training recovered pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) shall be allocated to the department to be used upon appropriation for the continuing training program pursuant to this article.

(2) Costs of seeking cover recovered pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) shall be deposited in the Physician Assistant Training Fund established pursuant to Section 3537.40 for the purposes of providing grants pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 3537.35.

(3) Costs of enforcement recovered pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) shall be allocated between the department, and the Attorney General, or other counsel, according to actual costs.

3537.35.

 The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall, in addition to other duties described in this article, do all of the following:

(a) Determine those areas of the state that are medically underserved in that they have a higher percentage of medically underserved and indigent persons and would benefit from the services of additional persons licensed as physician assistants.

(b) Determine the total cost of seeking cover as specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 3537.30. To determine the cost, the department shall study the market forces that are at work creating the scarcity of these physician assistants in these medically underserved areas, and determine the annual level of additional funding that would be required by a health facility, clinic, or other health care provider in those areas to motivate a physician assistant to serve full-time in those underserved areas. This amount shall be calculated so that when added to the prevailing rate for these services in the underserved area, would make these positions so attractive that physician assistants would be motivated to serve in those areas. This amount, which shall equal the cost to the department to place a qualified physician assistant in the underserved area, times four years shall be the total cost of seeking cover.

(c) Provide grants, as funds become available in the Physician Assistant Training Fund, to applicant health care providers that provide services in medically underserved areas for the purpose of funding additional full-time physician assistant positions in those areas to provide services in lieu of defaulting physician assistants. Participating providers shall use these grants to attract physician assistants that are from outside the area and shall demonstrate that the grant actually increases the number of physician assistants serving the underserved population. The grantee shall demonstrate that the grant did not merely shift a physician assistant from one medically underserved area to another, but rather, resulted in a net increase in the number of physician assistants serving the underserved population as a whole. Licensees under this article shall not directly or indirectly receive grants under this section.

3537.40.

 The Physician Assistant Training Fund is hereby created in the State Treasury for the purpose of receipt of funds collected pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 3537.30. The Physician Assistant Training Fund shall be available to the Department of Health Care Access and Information for the purpose of providing grants pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 3537.35, upon appropriation by the Legislature.

3537.50.

 No General Fund revenues shall be expended to carry out this article. The implementation of the pilot program and, if applicable, the permanent program established by this article shall be contingent upon the availability of federal funds, which do not divert or detract from funds currently utilized to underwrite existing physician assistant training programs or to fund existing functions of the board. The new funding shall be sufficient to cover the full additional cost to the educational institution or institutions that establish the program or programs, the cost of tuition and attendance for the students in the program or programs, and any additional costs, including enforcement costs, that the department or the board incurs as a result of implementing this article. This article does not impose any obligations upon the department, the board, or any physician assistant training program in the absence of adequate funding as described in this section. This article does not preclude applicants for the program established by this article from seeking state or federal scholarship funds, or state and federal loan repayment funds available to physician assistant students, or require any applicants be granted preference in the award of those funds. This article does not impair the autonomy of any institution that offers a physician assistant training program.

4175.

 (a) The California State Board of Pharmacy shall promptly forward to the appropriate licensing entity, including the Medical Board of California, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Dental Board of California, the California State Board of Optometry, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the Board of Registered Nursing, the Bureau of Naturopathic Medicine, or the Physician Assistant Board, all complaints received related to dangerous drugs or dangerous devices dispensed by a prescriber, certified nurse-midwife, nurse practitioner, naturopathic doctor, or physician assistant pursuant to Section 4170.

(b) All complaints involving serious bodily injury due to dangerous drugs or dangerous devices dispensed by prescribers, certified nurse-midwives, nurse practitioners, naturopathic doctors, or physician assistants pursuant to Section 4170 shall be handled by the Medical Board of California, the Dental Board of California, the California State Board of Optometry, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the Bureau of Naturopathic Medicine, the Board of Registered Nursing, the Veterinary Medical Board, or the Physician Assistant Committee as a case of greatest potential harm to a patient.

4846.5.

 (a) Except as provided in this section, the board shall issue renewal licenses only to those applicants that have completed a minimum of 36 hours of continuing education in the preceding two years.

(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, continuing education hours shall be earned by attending courses relevant to veterinary medicine and sponsored or cosponsored by any of the following:

(A) American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) accredited veterinary medical colleges.

(B) Accredited colleges or universities offering programs relevant to veterinary medicine.

(C) The American Veterinary Medical Association.

(D) American Veterinary Medical Association recognized specialty or affiliated allied groups.

(E) American Veterinary Medical Association’s affiliated state veterinary medical associations.

(F) Nonprofit annual conferences established in conjunction with state veterinary medical associations.

(G) Educational organizations affiliated with the American Veterinary Medical Association or its state affiliated veterinary medical associations.

(H) Local veterinary medical associations affiliated with the California Veterinary Medical Association.

(I) Federal, state, or local government agencies.

(J) Providers accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME) or approved by the American Medical Association (AMA), providers recognized by the American Dental Association Continuing Education Recognition Program (ADA CERP), and AMA or ADA affiliated state, local, and specialty organizations.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a total of six hours or less of the required 36 hours of continuing education may be earned by doing either of the following, or a combination thereof:

(A) Up to six hours may be earned by taking self-study courses, which may include, but are not limited to, reading journals, viewing video recordings, or listening to audio recordings.

(B) Up to four hours may be earned by providing pro bono spaying or neutering services under the supervision of a public animal control agency or shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals shelter, humane society shelter, or rescue group. The services shall be administered at a facility that is appropriately equipped and staffed to provide those services. The service shall be provided to a household with a demonstrated financial need for reduced-cost services.

(3) The board may approve other continuing veterinary medical education providers not specified in paragraph (1).

(A) The board has the authority to recognize national continuing education approval bodies for the purpose of approving continuing education providers not specified in paragraph (1).

(B) Applicants seeking continuing education provider approval shall have the option of applying to the board or to a board-recognized national approval body.

(4) For good cause, the board may adopt an order specifying, on a prospective basis, that a provider of continuing veterinary medical education authorized pursuant to paragraph (1) or (3) is no longer an acceptable provider.

(c) A person renewing their license issued pursuant to Section 4846.4, or a person applying for relicensure or for reinstatement of their license to active status, shall submit proof of compliance with this section to the board certifying that the person is in compliance with this section. Any false statement submitted pursuant to this section shall be a violation subject to Section 4831.

(d) This section shall not apply to a veterinarian’s first license renewal. This section shall apply only to second and subsequent license renewals granted on or after January 1, 2002.

(e) The board shall have the right to audit the records of all applicants to verify the completion of the continuing education requirement. Applicants shall maintain records of completion of required continuing education coursework for a period of four years and shall make these records available to the board for auditing purposes upon request. If the board, during this audit, questions whether any course reported by the veterinarian satisfies the continuing education requirement, the veterinarian shall provide information to the board concerning the content of the course; the name of its sponsor and cosponsor, if any; and specify the specific curricula that was of benefit to the veterinarian.

(f) A veterinarian desiring an inactive license or to restore an inactive license under Section 701 shall submit an application on a form provided by the board. In order to restore an inactive license to active status, the veterinarian shall have completed a minimum of 36 hours of continuing education within the last two years preceding application. The inactive license status of a veterinarian shall not deprive the board of its authority to institute or continue a disciplinary action against a licensee.

(g) Knowing misrepresentation of compliance with this article by a veterinarian constitutes unprofessional conduct and grounds for disciplinary action or for the issuance of a citation and the imposition of a civil penalty pursuant to Section 4883.

(h) The board, in its discretion, may exempt from the continuing education requirement any veterinarian who for reasons of health, military service, or undue hardship cannot meet those requirements. Applications for waivers shall be submitted on a form provided by the board.

(i) The administration of this section may be funded through professional license and continuing education provider fees. The fees related to the administration of this section shall not exceed the costs of administering the corresponding provisions of this section.

(j) For those continuing education providers not listed in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the board or its recognized national approval agent shall establish criteria by which a provider of continuing education shall be approved. The board shall initially review and approve these criteria and may review the criteria as needed. The board or its recognized agent shall monitor, maintain, and manage related records and data. The board may impose an application fee, not to exceed two hundred dollars ($200) biennially, for continuing education providers not listed in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).

(k) (1) Beginning January 1, 2018, a licensed veterinarian who renews their license shall complete a minimum of one credit hour of continuing education on the judicious use of medically important antimicrobial drugs every four years as part of their continuing education requirements.

(2) For purposes of this subdivision, “medically important antimicrobial drug” means an antimicrobial drug listed in Appendix A of the federal Food and Drug Administration’s Guidance for Industry #152, including critically important, highly important, and important antimicrobial drugs, as that appendix may be amended.

4883.

 The board may deny, revoke, or suspend a license or registration or assess a fine as provided in Section 4875 for any of the following:

(a) Conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry, in which case the record of the conviction shall be conclusive evidence.

(b) For having professional connection with, or lending the licensee’s or registrant’s name to, any illegal practitioner of veterinary medicine and the various branches thereof.

(c) Violation or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, any of the provisions of this chapter.

(d) Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or reporting on tuberculin or other biological tests.

(e) Employment of anyone but a veterinarian licensed in the state to demonstrate the use of biologics in the treatment of animals.

(f) False or misleading advertising.

(g) Unprofessional conduct, that includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) Conviction of a charge of violating any federal statutes or rules or any statute or rule of this state regulating dangerous drugs or controlled substances. The record of the conviction is conclusive evidence thereof. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order the license or registration to be suspended or revoked, or assess a fine, or decline to issue a license or registration, when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal or when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4, 1210.1, or 3063.1 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(2) (A) The use of, or prescribing for or administering to oneself, any controlled substance.

(B) The use of any of the dangerous drugs specified in Section 4022, or of alcoholic beverages to the extent, or in any manner as to be dangerous or injurious to a person licensed or registered under this chapter, or to any other person or to the public, or to the extent that the use impairs the ability of the person so licensed or registered to conduct with safety the practice authorized by the license or registration.

(C) The conviction of more than one misdemeanor or any felony involving the use, consumption, or self-administration of any of the substances referred to in this section or any combination thereof, and the record of the conviction is conclusive evidence.

A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order the license or registration to be suspended or revoked or assess a fine, or may decline to issue a license or registration, when the time for appeal has elapsed or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal or when an order granting probation is made suspending imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4, 1210.1, or 3063.1 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(3) A violation of any federal statute, rule, or regulation or any of the statutes, rules, or regulations of this state regulating dangerous drugs or controlled substances.

(h) Failure to keep the licensee’s or registrant’s premises and all equipment therein in a clean and sanitary condition.

(i) Fraud, deception, negligence, or incompetence in the practice of veterinary medicine.

(j) Aiding or abetting in any acts that are in violation of any of the provisions of this chapter.

(k) The employment of fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in obtaining the license or registration.

(l) The revocation, suspension, or other discipline by another state or territory of a license, certificate, or registration to practice veterinary medicine or as a veterinary technician in that state or territory.

(m) Cruelty to animals, conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals, or both.

(n) Disciplinary action taken by any public agency in any state or territory for any act substantially related to the practice of veterinary medicine or the practice of a veterinary technician.

(o) Violation, or the assisting or abetting violation, of any regulations adopted by the board pursuant to this chapter.

(p) Accepting, soliciting, or offering any form of remuneration from or to a cannabis licensee if the veterinarian or the veterinarian’s immediate family have a financial interest with the cannabis licensee. For purposes of this subdivision, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) “Cannabis licensee” shall have the same meaning as “licensee” in Section 26001.

(2) “Financial interest” shall have the same meaning as in Section 650.01.

(q) Discussing medicinal cannabis with a client while the veterinarian is employed by, or has an agreement with, a cannabis licensee. For purposes of this subdivision, “cannabis licensee” shall have the same meaning as “licensee” in Section 26001.

(r) Distributing any form of advertising for cannabis in California.

(s) Making any statement, claim, or advertisement that the licensee or registrant is a veterinary specialist or board certified unless they are certified by an American Veterinary Medical Association-Recognized Veterinary Specialty Organization or a National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America-Recognized Veterinary Specialty Organization.

(t) Exercising control over, interfering with, or attempting to influence the professional judgment of another California-licensed veterinarian or registered veterinary technician through coercion, extortion, inducement, collusion, or intimidation through any means, including, but not limited to, compensation, in order to require the other California-licensed veterinarian or registered veterinary technician to perform veterinary services in a manner inconsistent with current veterinary medical practice in this state.

4883.

 The board may deny, revoke, or suspend a license or registration or assess a fine as provided in Section 4875 for any of the following:

(a) Conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of veterinary medicine, surgery, or dentistry, in which case the record of the conviction shall be conclusive evidence.

(b) For having professional connection with, or lending the licensee’s or registrant’s name to, any illegal practitioner of veterinary medicine and the various branches thereof.

(c) Violation or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, any of the provisions of this chapter.

(d) Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or reporting on tuberculin or other biological tests.

(e) Employment of anyone but a veterinarian licensed in the state to demonstrate the use of biologics in the treatment of animals.

(f) False or misleading advertising.

(g) Unprofessional conduct, that includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) Conviction of a charge of violating any federal statutes or rules or any statute or rule of this state regulating dangerous drugs or controlled substances. The record of the conviction is conclusive evidence thereof. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order the license or registration to be suspended or revoked, or assess a fine, or decline to issue a license or registration, when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal or when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4, 1210.1, or 3063.1 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(2) (A) The use of, or prescribing for or administering to oneself, any controlled substance.

(B) The use of any of the dangerous drugs specified in Section 4022, or of alcoholic beverages to the extent, or in any manner as to be dangerous or injurious to a person licensed or registered under this chapter, or to any other person or to the public, or to the extent that the use impairs the ability of the person so licensed or registered to conduct with safety the practice authorized by the license or registration.

(C) The conviction of more than one misdemeanor or any felony involving the use, consumption, or self-administration of any of the substances referred to in this section or any combination thereof, and the record of the conviction is conclusive evidence.

A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order the license or registration to be suspended or revoked or assess a fine, or may decline to issue a license or registration, when the time for appeal has elapsed or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal or when an order granting probation is made suspending imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4, 1210.1, or 3063.1 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(3) A violation of any federal statute, rule, or regulation or any of the statutes, rules, or regulations of this state regulating dangerous drugs or controlled substances.

(h) Failure to keep the licensee’s or registrant’s premises and all equipment therein in a clean and sanitary condition.

(i) Fraud, deception, negligence, or incompetence in the practice of veterinary medicine.

(j) Aiding or abetting in any acts that are in violation of any of the provisions of this chapter.

(k) The employment of fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in obtaining the license or registration.

(l) The revocation, suspension, or other discipline by another state or territory of a license, certificate, or registration to practice veterinary medicine or as a veterinary technician in that state or territory.

(m) Cruelty to animals, conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals, or both.

(n) Disciplinary action taken by any public agency in any state or territory for any act substantially related to the practice of veterinary medicine or the practice of a veterinary technician.

(o) Violation, or the assisting or abetting violation, of any regulations adopted by the board pursuant to this chapter.

(p) Accepting, soliciting, or offering any form of remuneration from or to a cannabis licensee if the veterinarian or the veterinarian’s immediate family have a financial interest with the cannabis licensee. For purposes of this subdivision, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) “Cannabis licensee” shall have the same meaning as “licensee” in Section 26001.

(2) “Financial interest” shall have the same meaning as in Section 650.01.

(q) Discussing or recommending cannabis for use with a client while the veterinarian is employed by, or has an agreement with, a cannabis licensee. For purposes of this subdivision, “cannabis licensee” shall have the same meaning as “licensee” in Section 26001.

(r) Distributing any form of advertising for cannabis in California.

(s) Making any statement, claim, or advertisement that the licensee or registrant is a veterinary specialist or board certified unless they are certified by an American Veterinary Medical Association-Recognized Veterinary Specialty Organization or a National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America-Recognized Veterinary Specialty Organization.

(t) Exercising control over, interfering with, or attempting to influence the professional judgment of another California-licensed veterinarian or registered veterinary technician through coercion, extortion, inducement, collusion, or intimidation through any means, including, but not limited to, compensation, in order to require the other California-licensed veterinarian or registered veterinary technician to perform veterinary services in a manner inconsistent with current veterinary medical practice in this state.

4980.03.

 (a) “Board,” as used in this chapter, means the Board of Behavioral Sciences.

(b) “Associate,” as used in this chapter, means an unlicensed person who has earned a master’s or doctoral degree qualifying the person for licensure and is registered with the board as an associate.

(c) “Trainee,” as used in this chapter, means an unlicensed person who is currently enrolled in a master’s or doctoral degree program, as specified in Sections 4980.36 and 4980.37, that is designed to qualify the person for licensure under this chapter, and who has completed no less than 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of coursework in any qualifying degree program.

(d) “Applicant for licensure,” as used in this chapter, means an unlicensed person who has completed the required education and required hours of supervised experience for licensure.

(e) “Advertise,” as used in this chapter, includes, but is not limited to, any public communication, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 651, the issuance of any card, sign, or device to any person, or the causing, permitting, or allowing of any sign or marking on, or in, any building or structure, or in any newspaper or magazine or in any directory, or any printed matter whatsoever, with or without any limiting qualification. Signs within religious buildings or notices in church bulletins mailed to a congregation are not advertising within the meaning of this chapter.

(f) “Experience,” as used in this chapter, means experience in interpersonal relationships, psychotherapy, marriage and family therapy, direct clinical counseling, and nonclinical practice that satisfies the requirements for licensure as a marriage and family therapist.

(g) “Supervisor,” as used in this chapter, means an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Has held an active license for at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision as any of the following:

(A) A licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900), licensed clinical social worker, licensed educational psychologist, or equivalent out-of-state license. A licensed educational psychologist may only supervise the provision of educationally related mental health services that are consistent with the scope of practice of an educational psychologist, as specified in Section 4989.14.

(B) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology or an out-of-state licensed physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(2) For at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision, has practiced psychotherapy, provided psychological counseling pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 4989.14, or provided direct clinical supervision of psychotherapy performed by marriage and family therapist trainees, associate marriage and family therapists, associate professional clinical counselors, or associate clinical social workers. Supervision of psychotherapy performed by a social work intern or a professional clinical counselor trainee shall be accepted if the supervision provided is substantially equivalent to the supervision required for registrants.

(3) Has received training in supervision as specified in this chapter and by regulation.

(4) Has not provided therapeutic services to the supervisee.

(5) Has and maintains a current and active license that is not under suspension or probation as one of the following:

(A) A marriage and family therapist, professional clinical counselor, clinical social worker, or licensed educational psychologist, issued by the board.

(B) A psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900).

(C) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(6) Is not a spouse, domestic partner, or relative of the supervisee.

(7) Does not currently have or previously had a personal, professional, or business relationship with the supervisee that undermines the authority or effectiveness of the supervision.

(h) “Client centered advocacy,” as used in this chapter, includes, but is not limited to, researching, identifying, and accessing resources, or other activities, related to obtaining or providing services and supports for clients or groups of clients receiving psychotherapy or counseling services.

(i) “Accredited,” as used in this chapter, means a school, college, or university accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy Education or a regional or national institutional accrediting agency that is recognized by the United States Department of Education.

(j) “Approved,” as used in this chapter, means a school, college, or university that possessed unconditional approval by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education at the time of the applicant’s graduation from the school, college, or university.

4980.396.

 (a) On or after January 1, 2021, an applicant for licensure as a marriage and family therapist shall show, as part of the application, that they have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention. This requirement shall be met in one of the following ways:

(1) Obtained as part of their qualifying graduate degree program. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the registrar or training director of the educational institution or program from which the applicant graduated stating that the coursework required by this section is included within the institution’s curriculum required for graduation at the time the applicant graduated, or within the coursework that was completed by the applicant.

(2) Obtained as part of their applied experience. Applied experience can be met in any of the following settings: practicum or associateship that meets the requirement of this chapter, formal postdoctoral placement that meets the requirements of Section 2911, or other qualifying supervised experience. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the director of training for the program or primary supervisor where the qualifying experience has occurred stating that the training required by this section is included within the applied experience.

(3) By taking a continuing education course that meets the requirements of Section 4980.54. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a certification of completion.

(b) As a one-time requirement, a licensee prior to the time of their first renewal after January 1, 2021, or an applicant for reactivation or reinstatement to an active license status on or after January 1, 2021, shall have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention, using one of the methods specified in subdivision (a).

Proof of compliance with this section shall be certified under penalty of perjury that they are in compliance with this section and shall be retained for submission to the board upon request.

4989.23.

 (a) On or after January 1, 2021, an applicant for licensure as an educational psychologist shall show, as part of the application, that they have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention. This requirement shall be met in one of the following ways:

(1) Obtained as part of their qualifying graduate degree program. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the registrar or training director of the educational institution or program from which the applicant graduated stating that the coursework required by this section is included within the institution’s curriculum required for graduation at the time the applicant graduated, or within the coursework that was completed by the applicant.

(2) Obtained as part of their applied experience. Applied experience can be met in any of the following settings: practicum, supervised experience gained pursuant to Section 4989.20, formal postdoctoral placement that meets the requirements of Section 2911, or other qualifying supervised experience. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the director of training for the program or primary supervisor where the qualifying experience has occurred stating that the training required by this section is included within the applied experience.

(3) By taking a continuing education course that meets the requirements of Section 4989.34. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a certification of completion.

(b) As a one-time requirement, a licensee prior to the time of their first renewal after January 1, 2021, or an applicant for reactivation or reinstatement to an active license status on or after January 1, 2021, shall have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention, using one of the methods specified in subdivision (a). Proof of compliance with this section shall be certified under penalty of perjury that they are in compliance with this section and shall be retained for submission to the board upon request.

4996.20.

 (a) “Supervisor,” as used in this chapter, means an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Has held an active license for at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision as either:

(A) A licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900), licensed clinical social worker, licensed educational psychologist, or equivalent out-of-state license. A licensed educational psychologist may only supervise the provision of educationally related mental health services that are consistent with the scope of practice of an educational psychologist, as specified in Section 4989.14.

(B) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology or an out-of-state licensed physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(2) For at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision, has practiced psychotherapy, provided psychological counseling pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 4989.14, or provided direct clinical supervision of psychotherapy performed by associate clinical social workers, associate marriage and family therapists or trainees, or associate professional clinical counselors. Supervision of psychotherapy performed by a social work intern or a professional clinical counselor trainee shall be accepted if the supervision provided is substantially equivalent to the supervision required for registrants.

(3) Has received training in supervision as specified in this chapter and by regulation.

(4) Has not provided therapeutic services to the supervisee.

(5) Has and maintains a current and active license that is not under suspension or probation as one of the following:

(A) A marriage and family therapist, professional clinical counselor, clinical social worker, or licensed educational psychologist issued by the board.

(B) A psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900).

(C) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(6) Is not a spouse, domestic partner, or relative of the supervisee.

(7) Does not currently have or previously had a personal, professional, or business relationship with the supervisee that undermines the authority or effectiveness of the supervision.

(b) As used in this chapter, the term “supervision” means responsibility for, and control of, the quality of mental health and related services provided by the supervisee. Consultation or peer discussion shall not be considered supervision and shall not qualify as supervised experience.

“Supervision” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Ensuring the extent, kind, and quality of counseling performed is consistent with the education, training, and experience of the supervisee.

(2) Monitoring and evaluating the supervisee’s assessment, diagnosis, and treatment decisions and providing regular feedback.

(3) Monitoring and evaluating the supervisee’s ability to provide services at the site or sites where the supervisee is practicing and to the particular clientele being served.

(4) Monitoring and addressing clinical dynamics, including, but not limited to, countertransference-, intrapsychic-, interpersonal-, or trauma-related issues that may affect the supervisory or the practitioner-patient relationship.

(5) Ensuring the supervisee’s compliance with laws and regulations governing the practice of clinical social work.

(6) Reviewing the supervisee’s progress notes, process notes, and other patient treatment records, as deemed appropriate by the supervisor.

(7) With the client’s written consent, providing direct observation or review of audio or video recordings of the supervisee’s counseling or therapy, as deemed appropriate by the supervisor.

4996.27.

 (a) On or after January 1, 2021, an applicant for licensure as a clinical social worker shall show, as part of the application, that they have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention. This requirement shall be met in one of the following ways:

(1) Obtained as part of their qualifying graduate degree program. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the registrar or training director of the educational institution or program from which the applicant graduated stating that the coursework required by this section is included within the institution’s curriculum required for graduation at the time the applicant graduated, or within the coursework that was completed by the applicant.

(2) Obtained as part of their applied experience. Applied experience can be met in any of the following settings: practicum or associateship that meets the requirement of this chapter, formal postdoctoral placement that meets the requirements of Section 2911, or other qualifying supervised experience. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the director of training for the program or primary supervisor where the qualifying experience has occurred stating that the training required by this section is included within the applied experience.

(3) By taking a continuing education course that meets the requirements of Section 4996.22. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a certification of completion.

(b) As a one-time requirement, a licensee prior to the time of their first renewal after January 1, 2021, or an applicant for reactivation or reinstatement to an active license status on or after January 1, 2021, shall have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention, using one of the methods specified in subdivision (a). Proof of compliance with this section shall be certified under penalty of perjury that they are in compliance with this section and shall be retained for submission to the board upon request.

4999.12.

 For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) “Board” means the Board of Behavioral Sciences.

(b) “Accredited” means a school, college, or university accredited by a regional or national institutional accrediting agency that is recognized by the United States Department of Education.

(c) “Approved” means a school, college, or university that possessed unconditional approval by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education at the time of the applicant’s graduation from the school, college, or university.

(d) “Applicant for licensure” means an unlicensed person who has completed the required education and required hours of supervised experience for licensure.

(e) “Licensed professional clinical counselor” or “LPCC” means a person licensed under this chapter to practice professional clinical counseling, as defined in Section 4999.20.

(f) “Associate” means an unlicensed person who meets the requirements of Section 4999.42 and is registered with the board.

(g) “Clinical counselor trainee” means an unlicensed person who is currently enrolled in a master’s or doctoral degree program, as specified in Section 4999.32 or 4999.33, that is designed to qualify the person for licensure and who has completed no less than 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of coursework in any qualifying degree program.

(h) “Supervisor” means an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Has held an active license for at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision as either:

(A) A licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900), licensed clinical social worker, licensed educational psychologist, or equivalent out-of-state license. A licensed educational psychologist may only supervise the provision of educationally related mental health services that are consistent with the scope of practice of an educational psychologist, as specified in Section 4989.14.

(B) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology, or an out-of-state licensed physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(2) For at least two years within the five-year period immediately preceding any supervision, has practiced psychotherapy, provided psychological counseling pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 4989.14, or provided direct clinical supervision of psychotherapy performed by marriage and family therapist trainees, associate marriage and family therapists, associate professional clinical counselors, or associate clinical social workers. Supervision of psychotherapy performed by a social work intern or a professional clinical counselor trainee shall be accepted if the supervision provided is substantially equivalent to the supervision required for registrants.

(3) Has received training in supervision as specified in this chapter and by regulation.

(4) Has not provided therapeutic services to the supervisee.

(5) Has and maintains a current and active license that is not under suspension or probation as one of the following:

(A) A marriage and family therapist, professional clinical counselor, clinical social worker, or licensed educational psychologist issued by the board.

(B) A psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 6.6 (commencing with Section 2900).

(C) A physician and surgeon who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology.

(6) Is not a spouse, domestic partner, or relative of the supervisee.

(7) Does not currently have or previously had a personal, professional, or business relationship with the supervisee that undermines the authority or effectiveness of the supervision.

(i) “Client centered advocacy” includes, but is not limited to, researching, identifying, and accessing resources, or other activities, related to obtaining or providing services and supports for clients or groups of clients receiving psychotherapy or counseling services.

(j) “Advertising” or “advertise” includes, but is not limited to, the issuance of any card, sign, or device to any person, or the causing, permitting, or allowing of any sign or marking on, or in, any building or structure, or in any newspaper or magazine or in any directory, or any printed matter whatsoever, with or without any limiting qualification. It also includes business solicitations communicated by radio or television broadcasting. Signs within church buildings or notices in church bulletins mailed to a congregation are not advertising within the meaning of this chapter.

(k) “Referral” means evaluating and identifying the needs of a client to determine whether it is advisable to refer the client to other specialists, informing the client of that judgment, and communicating that determination as requested or deemed appropriate to referral sources.

(l) “Research” means a systematic effort to collect, analyze, and interpret quantitative and qualitative data that describes how social characteristics, behavior, emotion, cognitions, disabilities, mental disorders, and interpersonal transactions among individuals and organizations interact.

(m) “Supervision” means responsibility for, and control of, the quality of mental health and related services provided by the supervisee. Consultation or peer discussion shall not be considered supervision and shall not qualify as supervised experience. Supervision includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Ensuring the extent, kind, and quality of counseling performed is consistent with the education, training, and experience of the supervisee.

(2) Monitoring and evaluating the supervisee’s assessment, diagnosis, and treatment decisions and providing regular feedback.

(3) Monitoring and evaluating the supervisee’s ability to provide services at the site or sites where the supervisee is practicing and to the particular clientele being served.

(4) Monitoring and addressing clinical dynamics, including, but not limited to, countertransference-, intrapsychic-, interpersonal-, or trauma-related issues that may affect the supervisory or the practitioner-patient relationship.

(5) Ensuring the supervisee’s compliance with laws and regulations governing the practice of licensed professional clinical counseling.

(6) Reviewing the supervisee’s progress notes, process notes, and other patient treatment records, as deemed appropriate by the supervisor.

(7) With the client’s written consent, providing direct observation or review of audio or video recordings of the supervisee’s counseling or therapy, as deemed appropriate by the supervisor.

(n) “Clinical setting” means any setting that meets both of the following requirements:

(1) Lawfully and regularly provides mental health counseling or psychotherapy.

(2) Provides oversight to ensure that the associate’s work meets the experience and supervision requirements set forth in this chapter and in regulation and is within the scope of practice of the profession.

4999.66.

 (a) On or after January 1, 2021, an applicant for licensure as a professional clinical counselor shall show, as part of the application, that they have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention. This requirement shall be met in one of the following ways:

(1) Obtained as part of their qualifying graduate degree program. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the registrar or training director of the educational institution or program from which the applicant graduated stating that the coursework required by this section is included within the institution’s curriculum required for graduation at the time the applicant graduated, or within the coursework that was completed by the applicant.

(2) Obtained as part of their applied experience. Applied experience can be met in any of the following settings: practicum or associateship that meets the requirement of this chapter, formal postdoctoral placement that meets the requirements of Section 2911, or other qualifying supervised experience. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a written certification from the director of training for the program or primary supervisor where the qualifying experience has occurred stating that the training required by this section is included within the applied experience.

(3) By taking a continuing education course that meets the requirements of Section 4999.76. To satisfy this requirement, the applicant shall submit to the board a certification of completion.

(b) As a one-time requirement, a licensee prior to the time of their first renewal after January 1, 2021, or an applicant for reactivation or reinstatement to an active license status on or after January 1, 2021, shall have completed a minimum of six hours of coursework or applied experience under supervision in suicide risk assessment and intervention, using one of the methods specified in subdivision (a). Proof of compliance with this section shall be certified under penalty of perjury that they are in compliance with this section and shall be retained for submission to the board upon request.

6534.

 (a) The bureau shall maintain the following information in each licensee’s file, shall make this information available to a court for any purpose, including the determination of the appropriateness of appointing or continuing the appointment of, or removing, the licensee as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, and shall otherwise keep this information confidential, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (c) of this section:

(1) The names of the licensee’s current conservatees, wards, principals under a durable power of attorney for health care, or principals under a durable power of attorney for finances, and the names of the trusts or estates currently administered by the licensee, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(2) The aggregate dollar value of all assets currently under the licensee’s supervision as a professional fiduciary.

(3) The licensee’s current addresses and telephone numbers for their place of business and place of residence.

(4) Whether the licensee has ever been removed for cause as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, or has ever resigned or settled a matter in which a complaint against the licensee has been filed with the court as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, in a specific case, the circumstances causing that removal or resignation, and the case names, court locations, and case numbers associated with the removal or resignation.

(5) The case names, court locations, and case numbers of all conservatorship, guardianship, or trust or other estate administration cases that are closed for which the licensee served as the conservator, guardian, trustee, agent under a durable power of attorney for finance or health care, or personal representative of a decedent’s estate, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(6) Information regarding any discipline imposed upon the licensee by the bureau.

(7) Whether the licensee has filed for bankruptcy or held a controlling financial interest in a business that filed for bankruptcy in the last 10 years.

(b) The bureau shall make the information in paragraphs (2), (4), (6), and (7) of subdivision (a) available to the public.

(c) The bureau shall also publish information regarding licensees on the Internet as specified in Section 27. The information shall include, but shall not be limited to, information regarding license status and the information specified under subdivision (b).

6534.

 (a) The bureau shall maintain the following information in each licensee’s file, shall make this information available to a court for any purpose, including the determination of the appropriateness of appointing, continuing the appointment of, or removing, the licensee as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of decedent’s estate agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, or a position arising from an appointment as a professional fiduciary practice administrator, and shall otherwise keep this information confidential, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (c) of this section:

(1) The names of the licensee’s current conservatees, wards, principals under a durable power of attorney for health care, or principals under a durable power of attorney for finances, and the names of the trusts or estates currently administered by the licensee, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(2) The aggregate dollar value of all assets currently under the licensee’s supervision as a professional fiduciary.

(3) The licensee’s current addresses and telephone numbers for their place of business and place of residence.

(4) Whether the licensee has ever been removed for cause as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, or has ever resigned or settled a matter in which a complaint against the licensee has been filed with the court as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, or a position arising from an appointment as a professional fiduciary practice administrator, in a specific case, the circumstances causing that removal or resignation, and the case names, court locations, and case numbers associated with the removal or resignation.

(5) The case names, court locations, and case numbers of all conservatorship, guardianship, trust or other estate administration cases that are closed for which the licensee served as the conservator, guardian, trustee, professional fiduciary practice administrator, agent under a durable power of attorney for finance or health care, or personal representative a decedent’s estate, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(6) Information regarding any discipline imposed upon the licensee by the bureau.

(7) Whether the licensee has filed for bankruptcy or held a controlling financial interest in a business that filed for bankruptcy in the last 10 years.

(b) The bureau shall make the information in paragraphs (2), (4), (6), and (7) of subdivision (a) available to the public.

(c) The bureau shall also publish information regarding licensees on the Internet as specified in Section 27. The information shall include, but shall not be limited to, information regarding license status and the information specified under subdivision (b).

6538.

 (a) (1) To qualify for licensure, an applicant shall have completed 30 hours of prelicensing education courses provided by an educational program approved by the bureau.

(2) Beginning January 1, 2023, the prelicensing education courses shall include at least one hour of instruction in cultural competency.

(b) (1) To renew a license, or to restore a license from retired status to active status, a licensee shall complete 15 hours of approved continuing education courses each annual renewal cycle.

(2) Beginning January 1, 2023, as part of the approved continuing education courses required by paragraph (1), a licensee shall complete at least two hours of instruction in ethics, two hours of instruction in cultural competency, or two hours of instruction in both ethics and cultural competency every annual renewal cycle.

(c) The cost of any educational course required by this chapter shall not be borne by any client served by a licensee.

(d) For purposes of this section, “cultural competency” means understanding and applying cultural and ethnic data to the process of providing services that includes, but is not limited to, information on the appropriate services for the lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and intersex communities, ethnic communities, and religious communities.

6560.

 A licensee shall keep complete and accurate client records, and shall make those records available for audit or review by the bureau upon request.

6561.

 (a) A licensee shall initially, and annually thereafter, file with the bureau a statement under penalty of perjury containing the following:

(1) The licensee’s business address, telephone number, and facsimile number.

(2) Whether or not the licensee has been removed for cause as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, or agent under a durable power of attorney for finances. The licensee may file an additional statement of the issues and facts pertaining to the case.

(3) The names of the licensee’s current conservatees, wards, principals under a durable power of attorney for health care, or principals under a durable power of attorney for finances, and the names of trusts and decedent’s estates currently administered by the licensee, whether the cases are court supervised or non-court supervised, and including court names, court locations, and case numbers where applicable.

(4) The case names, court locations, and case numbers of all conservatorship, guardianship, trust and other estate administration cases that are closed for which the licensee served as the conservator, guardian, trustee, agent under a durable power of attorney for finance or health care, and personal representative of a decedent’s estate, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(5) Whether the licensee has been found by a court to have breached a fiduciary duty.

(6) Whether the licensee has resigned or settled a matter in which a complaint against the licensee has been filed with the court, along with the case number and a statement of the issues and facts pertaining to the allegations.

(7) Any licenses or professional certificates held by the licensee.

(8) Any ownership or beneficial interests in any businesses or other enterprises held by the licensee or by a family member that receives or has received payments from a client of the licensee.

(9) Whether the licensee has filed for bankruptcy or held a controlling financial interest in a business that filed for bankruptcy in the last ten years.

(10) The name of any persons or entities that have an interest in the licensee’s professional fiduciary business.

(11) Whether the licensee has been convicted of a crime.

(b) The statement by the licensee required by this section may be filed electronically with the bureau, in a form approved by the bureau. However, any additional statement filed under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be filed in writing.

6561.

 (a) A licensee shall initially, and annually thereafter, file with the bureau a statement under penalty of perjury containing the following:

(1) The licensee’s business address, telephone number, and facsimile number.

(2) Whether or not the licensee has been removed for cause as a conservator, guardian, trustee, personal representative of a decedent’s estate, agent under a durable power of attorney for health care, agent under a durable power of attorney for finances, or a position arising from appointment as a professional fiduciary practice administrator. The licensee may file an additional statement of the issues and facts pertaining to the case.

(3) The names of the licensee’s current conservatees, wards, principals under a durable power of attorney for health care, or principals under a durable power of attorney for finances, and the names of trusts and decedent’s estates currently administered by the licensee, whether the cases are court supervised or non-court supervised, and including court names, court locations, and case numbers where applicable.

(4) The case names, court locations, and case numbers of all conservatorship, guardianship, trust and other estate administration cases that are closed for which the licensee served as the conservator, guardian, trustee, agent under a durable power of attorney for finance or health care, and personal representative of a decedent’s estate, whether the case is court supervised or non-court supervised.

(5) Whether the licensee has been found by a court to have breached a fiduciary duty.

(6) Whether the licensee has resigned or settled a matter in which a complaint against the licensee has been filed with the court, along with the case number and a statement of the issues and facts pertaining to the allegations.

(7) Any licenses or professional certificates held by the licensee.

(8) Any ownership or beneficial interests in businesses or other enterprises held by the licensee or by a family member that receives or has received payments from a client of the licensee.

(9) Whether the licensee has filed for bankruptcy or held a controlling financial interest in a business that filed for bankruptcy in the last ten years.

(10) The name of any persons or entities that have an interest in the licensee’s professional fiduciary business.

(11) Whether the licensee has been convicted of a crime.

(b) The statement by the licensee required by this section may be filed electronically with the bureau, in a form approved by the bureau. However, any additional statement filed under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be filed in writing.

7086.10.

 (a) For any licensee whose license is revoked or pending revocation whose actions have caused the payment of an award to a consumer pursuant to the program, the board shall display a notice on the public license detail on the board’s internet website stating that the licensee was the subject of a payment pursuant to the program.

(b) The notice specified in subdivision (a) shall remain on the board’s internet website until seven years after the date of the payment.

(c) This section shall operate independently of, and is not subject to, Section 7124.6.

7506.10.

 (a) Every initial registration shall expire one year following the date of issuance, unless renewed as provided in this section. A renewal registration shall expire two years following the date of renewal, unless renewed as provided in this section.

(b) At least 60 days prior to the expiration, the bureau shall mail a renewal form to the registrant at the licensee’s place of business. A registrant who desires to renew their registration shall forward to the bureau for each registration the properly completed renewal form obtained from the bureau, with the renewal fee prescribed by this chapter, for renewal of their registration. Until the registration renewal certificate is issued, a registrant may continue to work with a temporary registration renewal certificate on a secure form prescribed by the chief and issued by the qualified certificate holder that has been embossed by the bureau with the state seal for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of expiration of the registration.

(c) A licensee shall provide to their registrants information regarding procedures for renewal of registration.

(d) A registration that is not renewed within 60 days after its expiration may not be renewed. If the registration is renewed within 60 days after its expiration, the registrant, as a condition precedent to renewal, shall pay the renewal fee and also pay the delinquency fee prescribed in this chapter. Registrants working with expired registrations shall pay all accrued fees and penalties prior to renewal or reregistration.

(e) Upon renewal, evidence of renewal, as the director may prescribe, shall be issued to the registrant. If evidence of renewal has not been delivered to the registrant prior to the date of expiration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration for a period not to exceed 60 days after the date of expiration or a temporary registration renewal certificate, as described in subdivision (b).

(f) A registration shall not be renewed until any and all fines assessed pursuant to this chapter and not resolved in accordance with this chapter have been paid.

7520.3.

 (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.

(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:

(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).

(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.

(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.

(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policy’s status.

(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.

(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.

(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.

(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the company’s performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.

(g) A licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report annually to the bureau the date and amount of any claims paid during the prior calendar year from any general liability insurance policy held pursuant to this section. The licensee shall report the information on a form provided by the bureau. The licensee shall report the claim information no later than March 1. The creation of the form shall not be subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

7520.3.

 (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.

(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:

(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).

(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.

(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.

(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policy’s status.

(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.

(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.

(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.

(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the company’s performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.

(g) A licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report annually to the bureau the date and amount of any claims paid during the prior calendar year from any general liability insurance policy held pursuant to this section. The licensee shall report the information on a form provided by the bureau. The licensee shall report the claim information no later than March 1. The creation of the form shall not be subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2025, and as of that date is repealed.

7523.

 (a) Unless specifically exempted by Section 7522, no person shall engage in the business of private investigator, as defined in Section 7521, unless that person has applied for and received a license to engage in that business pursuant to this chapter.

(b) Any person who violates any provision of this chapter or who conspires with another person to violate any provision of this chapter, relating to private investigator licensure, or who knowingly engages a nonexempt unlicensed person is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or by imprisonment in the county jail not to exceed one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.

(c) A proceeding to impose the fine specified in subdivision (b) may be brought in any court of competent jurisdiction in the name of the people of the State of California by the Attorney General or by any district attorney or city attorney, or with the consent of the district attorney, the city prosecutor in any city or city and county having a full-time city prosecutor for the jurisdiction in which the violation occurred. If the action is brought by the district attorney, the penalty collected shall be paid to the treasurer of the county in which the judgment is entered. If the action is brought by a city attorney or city prosecutor, one-half of the penalty collected shall be paid to the treasurer of the city in which the judgment was entered and one-half to the treasurer of the county in which the judgment was entered. If the action is brought by the Attorney General, all of the penalties collected shall be deposited in the Private Security Services Fund.

(d) Any person who: (1) acts as or represents themselves to be a private investigator licensee under this chapter when they are not a licensee under this chapter; (2) falsely represents that they are employed by a licensee under this chapter when they are not employed by a licensee under this chapter; (3) carries a badge, identification card, or business card, indicating that they are a licensee under this chapter when they are not a licensee under this chapter; (4) uses a letterhead or other written or electronically generated materials indicating that they are a licensee under this chapter when they are not a licensee under this chapter; or (5) advertises that they are a licensee under this chapter when they are not a licensee, is guilty of a misdemeanor that is punishable by a fine of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) or by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.

(e) A proceeding to impose the fine specified in subdivision (d) may be brought in any court of competent jurisdiction in the name of the people of the State of California by the Attorney General or by any district attorney or city attorney, or with the consent of the district attorney, the city prosecutor in any city or city and county having a full-time city prosecutor for the jurisdiction in which the violation occurred. If the action is brought by the district attorney, the penalty collected shall be paid to the treasurer of the county in which the judgment is entered. If the action is brought by a city attorney or city prosecutor, one-half of the penalty collected shall be paid to the treasurer of the city in which the judgment was entered and one-half to the treasurer of the county in which the judgment was entered. If the action is brought by the Attorney General, all of the penalty collected shall be deposited in the Private Security Services Fund.

(f) Any person who is convicted of a violation of the provisions of this section shall not be issued a license under this chapter, within one year following that conviction.

(g) Any person who is convicted of a violation of subdivision (a), (b), or (d) shall not be issued a license for a period of one year following a first conviction and shall not be issued a license for a period of five years following a second or subsequent conviction of subdivision (a), (b), or (d), or any combination of subdivision (a), (b), or (d).

(h) The chief shall gather evidence of violations of this chapter and of any rule or regulation established pursuant to this chapter by persons engaged in the business of private investigator who fail to obtain a license and shall gather evidence of violations and furnish that evidence to prosecuting officers of any county or city for the purpose of prosecuting all violations occurring within their jurisdiction.

(i) The prosecuting officer of any county or city shall prosecute all violations of this chapter occurring within their jurisdiction.

SEC. 73.

 Section 15.1 of this bill incorporates all of the substantive amendments to Section 3502.4 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 2626. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2023, (2) each bill amends Section 3502.4 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2626, in which case Section 3502.4 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 2626, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 15.1 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 15 of this bill shall not become operative.

SEC. 74.

 Section 26.1 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 4883 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 1885. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2023, (2) each bill amends Section 4883 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 1885, in which case Section 26 of this bill shall not become operative.

SEC. 75.

 Section 34.1 of this bill incorporates all of the substantive amendments to Section 6534 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and SB 1024. That section shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2023, (2) each bill amends Section 6534 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after SB 1024, in which case Section 34 of this bill shall not become operative.

SEC. 76.

 Section 37.1 of this bill incorporates all of the substantive amendments to Section 6561 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and SB 1024. That section shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2023, (2) each bill amends Section 6561 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after SB 1024, in which case Section 37 of this bill shall not become operative.

SEC. 77.

 Section 40.1 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Senate Bill 1443. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2023, (2) each bill amends Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Senate Bill 1443, in which case Section 40 of this bill shall not become operative.

SEC. 78.

 No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.