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AB-3364 Judiciary omnibus.(2019-2020)

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Date Published: 09/01/2020 10:00 AM
AB3364:v93#DOCUMENT

Assembly Bill No. 3364
CHAPTER 36

An act to amend Sections 6075.5, 21701, 21703, and 21705 of, and to amend, repeal, and add Section 21712 of, the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 55.32, 1102.19, and 1788.18 of, and to add Section 2924.8 to, the Civil Code, to amend Sections 430.41, 435.5, 439, 673, 681.020, 708.150, 1161.2, and 1540 of, to amend and repeal Section 472a of, and to repeal and amend Section 472 of, the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 510 and 17212 of, and to amend and repeal Section 4055 of, the Family Code, to amend Sections 12921, 12926, 12940, and 14985.8 of the Government Code, to amend Sections 1320.24, 1320.26, 1320.30, 1320.32, 1320.33, 1320.34, and 1320.35 of the Penal Code, to amend Section 15642 of the Probate Code, to amend Section 19209 of the Public Contract Code, and to amend Section 100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to state government.

[ Approved by Governor  August 31, 2020. Filed with Secretary of State  August 31, 2020. ]

LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


AB 3364, Committee on Judiciary. Judiciary omnibus.
(1) Existing law, the State Bar Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of attorneys by the State Bar of California and requires the State Bar to adopt regulations to require, as of January 1, 2022, that the mandatory continuing legal education curriculum for all licensees include training on bias, as specified. Existing law requires a licensee to meet the requirements for each compliance period ending after January 31, 2023.
This bill would instead require a licensee to meet the requirements for each compliance period ending after January 31, 2022.
(2) Existing law requires a notice of sale to be posted before any power of sale may be exercised under the power of sale contained in a deed of trust or mortgage.
This bill, beginning March 1, 2021, would also require a resident of property upon which a notice of sale has been posted to be advised that, if the person is renting the property, the new property owner may either give the tenant a new lease or rental agreement or provide the tenant with a 90-day eviction notice, and that the new property owner is required to honor the lease unless the new owner will occupy the property as a primary residence or under limited circumstances. The bill would make it an infraction to tear down the notice within 72 hours of posting. The bill would require the Department of Business Oversight and the Department Real Estate to make translations of the notice available in specified languages. By creating a new crime, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.
(3) Existing law provides that an assignee of a right represented by a judgment may become an assignee of record by filing with the clerk of the court an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment.
This bill would require documentation evidencing authorization to be filed with an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment if an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment purports to be executed or acknowledged by an authorized agent of the judgment creditor or prior assignee of record. This bill would also authorize an assignee of a right represented by a judgment to become an assignee of record by filing with the clerk of the court a court order or other documentation evidencing assignment of judgment by operation of law.
(4) Existing law requires a seller of residential real property located in a high or very high fire hazard severity zone, as specified, to provide to the buyer documentation stating that the property is in compliance with state law requiring certain defensible space requirements around the property or, if applicable, with a local vegetation management ordinance. If the seller has not obtained that documentation, existing law requires the seller and buyer to enter into a written agreement pursuant to which the buyer agrees to obtain documentation of compliance, as specified.
This bill would specify that nothing in those provisions, including provisions regarding the existence of an agreement between a buyer and seller, limits the ability of a state or local agency to enforce defensible space requirements or other applicable statutes, regulations, and local ordinances.
(5) Existing law, the Rosenthal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, requires a debt collector to cease collection activities until a review is completed upon receipt of, among other documents, the debtor’s written statement that the debtor claims to be the victim of identity theft. Existing law authorizes this writing to be, among others, a Federal Trade Commission’s Affidavit of Identity Theft.
This bill would instead authorize this writing to be a Federal Trade Commission’s identity theft report.
(6) Existing law specifies procedures for the enforcement of money judgments and requires a judgment debtor to appear for examination pursuant to a court order upon application by the judgment creditor. If a corporation, partnership, association, trust, or other organization is served with an order to appear for an examination, existing law requires those entities to designate to appear and be examined by one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons familiar with the property or debts. Existing law authorizes one or more officers to accompany an individual if the order to appear requires the appearance of a specified individual.
This bill would make those provisions applicable to limited liability companies.
(7) Existing law authorizes access to limited civil case records filed in an unlawful detainer action only under specified circumstances, and authorizes a county clerk to allow any person to access those records 60 days after the complaint has been filed if the plaintiff prevails in the action within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, except as specified.
This bill would instead authorize the county clerk to allow access to those records to any person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, except as specified.
(8) Existing law, the Unclaimed Property Law, provides for the disposition of unclaimed property received by the state unless conditions for escheat exist. Existing law authorizes a person who claims to have been the owner of the property paid or delivered to the state to file a claim to the property. Existing law authorizes property received by the Controller in the name of a state or local agency to be transferred to the state or local agency without the filing of a claim.
This bill would make those transfer provisions applicable to school districts and community college districts.
(9) The California Fair Employment and Housing Act generally prohibits discrimination in employment and housing based on specified personal characteristics, including veteran or military status.
This bill would make conforming, nonsubstantive changes to the term “veteran or military status” in those provisions.
(10) Existing law requires an attorney who provides a demand letter for a construction-related accessibility claim to a building owner or tenant to send a copy of, and information about, the demand letter to the California Commission on Disability Access in the Department of General Services in a standard format specified by the commission.
This bill would require the commission, at least 30 days before requiring a new standard format, to post on its internet website the new standard format and the date on which the commission will begin requiring the information to be sent in the new standard format.
(11) Existing law requires each pretrial services agency that uses a risk assessment tool to validate that tool by January 1, 2021, and on a regular basis thereafter, as specified. Existing law also requires the Judicial Council to, beginning on December 31, 2020, and each year thereafter, publish a report on its internet website with data related to outcomes and potential biases in pretrial release, and requires the Judicial Council to, on or before July 1, 2022, provide a report to the courts and the Legislature containing recommendations to mitigate bias and disparate effect in pretrial decisionmaking.
This bill would instead require each pretrial services agency that uses a risk assessment tool to validate that tool by July 1, 2021. The bill would require the Judicial Council to instead publish the report on outcomes and potential biases in pretrial release on July 30, 2021, and each year thereafter, and would require the Judicial Council to provide its report containing recommendations to mitigate bias and disparate effect in pretrial decisionmaking on or before January 1, 2023.
(12) Existing law requires the Judicial Counsel to provide a report twice a year to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and the State Auditor that contains specified information relating to contracts and payments made to vendors and contractors.
This bill would instead require the Judicial Counsel to provide a report only once a year, would revise the information required in the report, and would require judicial branch entities to make certain information available in the Financial Information System for California (FISCal).
(13) Existing law, the California Self-Service Storage Facility Act, specifies remedies and procedures for self-service storage facility owners when occupants are delinquent in paying rent or other charges. Under existing law, if rent or other charges due from an occupant remain unpaid for 14 consecutive days, an owner may terminate the right of the occupant to the use of the storage space at a self-service storage facility by sending a preliminary lien notice by certified mail to the occupant’s last known address, defined to mean the address provided by the occupant, as specified.
Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the notice to be sent by electronic mail subject to specified conditions. Existing law also allows an owner to demonstrate actual delivery and receipt of documents by, among other methods, the occupant acknowledging receipt of the electronic transmission of the notice by executing an electronic signature or by transmitting the notice to the occupant through an application on a personal electronic device, as provided.
This bill would remove the January 1, 2021, date, thus authorizing the sending of the notice by electronic mail indefinitely. The bill would allow an owner to demonstrate actual delivery and receipt of documents by transmitting the document to the occupant through an application on an internet website, rather than an application on a personal electronic device, or by the occupant acknowledging receipt by replying to the electronic mail communication, and would make conforming changes. The bill would make the provision allowing an owner to demonstrate actual delivery and receipt of documents by email communication inoperative on January 1, 2023.
Existing law, until January 1, 2021, deems a lien to attach if the notice has been sent and the total sum due has not been paid by the specified termination date. Existing law requires the owner to send to the occupant’s last known address a notice of lien sale and a blank declaration in opposition to the lien sale.
This bill would extend these provisions until January 1, 2023.
(14) Existing law provides that in a civil action, before filing a demurrer, motion to strike, or motion for judgment on the pleadings, a party is required to meet and confer with the opposing party to try to resolve the objections or claims that would be raised in the filing. Existing law specifies certain requirements and procedures for this meet and confer requirements process, for demurrers, motions to strike, and motions for judgment on the pleadings and provides that these requirements and procedures are operative until January 1, 2021.
This bill would extend these meet and confer requirements and procedures indefinitely. Because the moving party would be required to file a declaration under penalty of perjury describing the parties’ efforts made to meet and confer, the bill would expand the scope of the crime of perjury and, therefore, impose a state-mandated local program.
Existing law provides that, until January 1, 2021, a party may amend a pleading once without leave of court before an answer, demurrer, or motion to strike is filed, or after a demurrer or motion to strike is filed but before it is heard by the court if the amended pleading is filed and served no later than the date for filing an opposition to the demurrer or motion strike. Existing law permits a party to amend a pleading after the date for filing an opposition to a demurrer or motion to strike upon stipulation by the parties.
This bill would extend this provision indefinitely.
Existing law provides that if a demurrer is sustained, the court may grant leave to amend a pleading upon terms that are just and fix the time within which the amendment or amended pleading shall be filed. Existing law provides that, until January 1, 2021, the court’s authority to grant leave to amend is subject to a 3-amendment limitation for complaints and cross-complaints, except as specified.
This bill would extend indefinitely the 3-amendment limitation on the court’s authority to grant leave to amend after a demurrer is sustained.
(15) Existing law provides for a “confidential marriage,” whereby 2 unmarried people, not minors, who have been living together as spouses, may be married. Existing law requires a confidential marriage license to be issued by the county clerk, as specified, and then returned to the county clerk after the marriage has been solemnized. Under existing law, if a confidential marriage license is lost, damaged, or destroyed after the performance of the marriage, but before it is returned to the county clerk, the person solemnizing the marriage is required to obtain a duplicate marriage license by filing an affidavit setting forth the facts with the county clerk of the county in which the license was issued. Existing law requires the duplicate license to be issued by the county clerk no later than one year after the issuance of the original marriage license and returned to the clerk by the person solemnizing the marriage within one year of the date shown on the original marriage license.
This bill would instead require the county clerk to issue a duplicate confidential marriage license within one year after the date of the marriage and would require the person solemnizing the marriage to return the license to the clerk within one year of the date of the marriage.
(16) Existing law imposes a general obligation on both parents of a minor child to support their child in the manner suitable to the child’s circumstances. Existing law establishes the statewide uniform guidelines for calculating court-ordered child support, based on the income of both parents and the time each parent spends with the child. There is a rebuttable presumption under existing law that the obligor is entitled to a low-income adjustment of the child support amount when the obligor’s net disposable income per month is less than $1,500, adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases by the Judicial Council based on the change in the annual California Consumer Price Index, as specified. Commencing January 1, 2021, the net disposable income threshold is reduced to $1,000 per month without adjustment for cost-of-living increases.
This bill would delete the provision that would become operative on January 1, 2021, thereby maintaining the net disposable income threshold at $1,500 per month, adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases, indefinitely.
Existing law establishes the Department of Child Support Services to administer all services and perform all functions necessary to establish, collect, and distribute child support. Existing law, except as specified, requires all files, applications, papers, documents, and records established or maintained by a public entity pursuant to the administration and implementation of the child and spousal support enforcement program to be confidential and not be open to examination or released for disclosure for any purpose not directly connected with the administration of the child and spousal support enforcement program. Existing law prohibits a public entity from disclosing any file, application, paper, document, or record, or the information contained therein, except as authorized.
This bill would provide that a public entity does not include the court. The bill would state that these changes are declaratory of existing law.
(17) Existing law requires the Judicial Council to establish a Court-Appointed Special Advocate (CASA) program, under which volunteers serve as a court-appointed special advocate to provide designated services and support to wards, dependents, and nonminor dependents in juvenile court proceedings. Existing law requires the council to establish a request-for-proposal process for grants to establish, maintain, or expand local CASA programs and to require funds or in-kind funds equal to the proposal request.
This bill would instead authorize, but not require, the council to require matching funds for local programs to receive grants through this process and would authorize the council to require matching funds in an amount up to the proposal request amount.
(18) Existing law, stayed pending voter approval under the powers of referendum pursuant to the California Constitution, repeals the cash bail system and instead requires Pretrial Assessment Services, as defined, to assess a person arrested or detained according to a risk assessment instrument and specifies the procedures for the detention or release of that person.
This bill would delay the implementation of that law until October 1, 2021. The bill would make additional conforming changes.
(19) This bill would make other nonsubstantive and conforming changes.
(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.
This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.
Vote: MAJORITY   Appropriation: NO   Fiscal Committee: YES   Local Program: YES  

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:


SECTION 1.

 Section 6070.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

6070.5.
 (a) The State Bar shall adopt regulations to require, as of January 1, 2022, that the mandatory continuing legal education (MCLE) curriculum for all licensees under this chapter includes training on implicit bias and the promotion of bias-reducing strategies to address how unintended biases regarding race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, or other characteristics undermine confidence in the legal system. A licensee shall meet the requirements of this section for each MCLE compliance period ending after January 31, 2022.
(b) When approving MCLE providers to offer the training required by subdivision (a), the State Bar shall require that the MCLE provider meets, at a minimum, all of the following requirements:
(1) The MCLE provider shall make reasonable efforts to recruit and hire trainers who are representative of the diversity of persons that California’s legal system serves.
(2) The trainers shall have either academic training in implicit bias or experience educating legal professionals about implicit bias and its effects on people accessing and interacting with the legal system.
(3) The training shall include a component regarding the impact of implicit bias, explicit bias, and systemic bias on the legal system and the effect this can have on people accessing and interacting with the legal system.
(4) The training shall include actionable steps licensees can take to recognize and address their own implicit biases.
(c) As part of the certification, approval, or renewal process for MCLE-approved provider status, or more frequently if required by the State Bar, the MCLE provider shall attest to its compliance with the requirements of subdivision (b) and shall confirm that it will continue to comply with those requirements for the duration of the provider’s approval period.

SEC. 2.

 Section 21701 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21701.
 For the purposes of this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
(a) “Self-service storage facility” means real property designed and used for the purpose of renting or leasing individual storage space to occupants who are to have access to the space for the purpose of storing and removing personal property or for storing individual storage containers provided to occupants who have exclusive use of the container for the purpose of storing and removing personal property, whether or not the individual storage containers are transported pursuant to Section 21701.1. Self-service storage facility does not include a garage or other storage area in a private residence. No occupant may use a self-service storage facility for residential purposes. A self-service storage facility is not a warehouse, nor a public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code. If an owner issues a warehouse receipt, bill of lading, or other document of title for the personal property stored, the owner and the occupant are subject to the provisions of Division 7 (commencing with Section 7101) of the Commercial Code, and the provisions of this chapter do not apply.
(b) “Owner” means the owner, operator, lessor, or sublessor of a self-service storage facility, their agent, or any other person authorized by them to manage the facility, or to receive rent from an occupant under a rental agreement, and no real estate license is required.
(c) “Occupant” means a person, or their sublessee, successor, or assign, who is entitled to the use of the storage space at a self-service storage facility under a rental agreement, to the exclusion of others.
(d) “Rental agreement” means any written agreement or lease that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, rules, or any other provision concerning the use and occupancy of a self-service storage facility.
(e) “Personal property” means movable property not affixed to land, and includes, but is not limited to, goods, merchandise, furniture, and household items.
(f) “Last known address” means that mailing address or email address provided by the occupant in the latest rental agreement, or the mailing address or email address provided by the occupant in a subsequent written notice of a change of address.
(g) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 3.

 Section 21701 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21701.
 For the purposes of this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
(a) “Self-service storage facility” means real property designed and used for the purpose of renting or leasing individual storage space to occupants who are to have access to the space for the purpose of storing and removing personal property or for storing individual storage containers provided to occupants who have exclusive use of the container for the purpose of storing and removing personal property, whether or not the individual storage containers are transported pursuant to Section 21701.1. Self-service storage facility does not include a garage or other storage area in a private residence. No occupant may use a self-service storage facility for residential purposes. A self-service storage facility is not a warehouse, nor a public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code. If an owner issues a warehouse receipt, bill of lading, or other document of title for the personal property stored, the owner and the occupant are subject to the provisions of Division 7 (commencing with Section 7101) of the Commercial Code, and the provisions of this chapter do not apply.
(b) “Owner” means the owner, operator, lessor, or sublessor of a self-service storage facility, their agent, or any other person authorized by them to manage the facility, or to receive rent from an occupant under a rental agreement, and no real estate license is required.
(c) “Occupant” means a person, or their sublessee, successor, or assign, who is entitled to the use of the storage space at a self-service storage facility under a rental agreement, to the exclusion of others.
(d) “Rental agreement” means any written agreement or lease that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, rules, or any other provision concerning the use and occupancy of a self-service storage facility.
(e) “Personal property” means movable property not affixed to land, and includes, but is not limited to, goods, merchandise, furniture, and household items.
(f) “Last known address” means that address provided by the occupant in the latest rental agreement, or the address provided by the occupant in a subsequent written notice of a change of address.
(g) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 4.

 Section 21703 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21703.
 If any part of the rent or other charges due from an occupant remain unpaid for 14 consecutive days, an owner may terminate the right of the occupant to the use of the storage space at a self-service storage facility by sending a notice to the occupant’s last known address and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) of Section 21712. The notice shall be sent by certified mail, postage prepaid, by regular first-class mail if the owner obtains a certificate of mailing indicating the date the notice was mailed, or by email pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 21712. The notice shall contain all of the following:
(a) An itemized statement of the owner’s claim showing the sums due at the time of the notice and the date when the sums became due.
(b) A statement that the occupant’s right to use the storage space will terminate on a specified date (not less than 14 days after the mailing of the notice) unless all sums due are paid by the occupant prior to the specified date.
(c) A notice that the occupant may be denied access to the storage space after the termination date if the sums are not paid and that an owner’s lien, as provided for in Section 21702, may be imposed thereafter.
(d) The name, street address, and telephone number of the owner or their designated agent whom the occupant may contact to respond to the notice.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 5.

 Section 21703 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 4 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21703.
 If any part of the rent or other charges due from an occupant remain unpaid for 14 consecutive days, an owner may terminate the right of the occupant to the use of the storage space at a self-service storage facility by sending a notice to the occupant’s last known address and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) of Section 21712. The notice shall be sent by certified mail, postage prepaid, or by regular first-class mail if the owner obtains a certificate of mailing indicating the date the notice was mailed. The notice shall contain all of the following:
(a) An itemized statement of the owner’s claim showing the sums due at the time of the notice and the date when the sums became due.
(b) A statement that the occupant’s right to use the storage space will terminate on a specified date (not less than 14 days after the mailing of the notice) unless all sums due are paid by the occupant prior to the specified date.
(c) A notice that the occupant may be denied access to the storage space after the termination date if the sums are not paid and that an owner’s lien, as provided for in Section 21702, may be imposed thereafter.
(d) The name, street address, and telephone number of the owner or their designated agent whom the occupant may contact to respond to the notice.
(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 6.

 Section 21705 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 5 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21705.
 (a) If the notice has been sent as required by Section 21703 and the total sum due has not been paid by the termination date specified in the preliminary lien notice, the lien imposed by this chapter attaches as of that date and the owner may do all of the following:
(1) Deny an occupant access to the space.
(2) Enter the space.
(3) Remove any property found therein to a place of safekeeping.
(b) Upon taking the actions described in subdivision (a), the owner shall send to the occupant, by certified mail, or by first-class mail if the owner obtains a certificate of mailing, postage prepaid, addressed to the occupant’s last known address, and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) of Section 21712, or by email pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 21712, both of the following:
(1) A notice of lien sale that states all of the following:
(A) That the occupant’s right to use the storage space has terminated and that the occupant no longer has access to the stored property.
(B) That the stored property is subject to a lien, the current amount of the lien, and that the lien will continue to increase if rent is not paid.
(C) That the property will be sold to satisfy the lien after a specified date that is not less than 14 days from the date of mailing the notice, unless the occupant executes and returns by certified mail a declaration in opposition to lien sale in the form set forth in paragraph (2).
(D) A statement that the occupant may regain full use of the space by paying the full lien amount prior to the date specified in subparagraph (C).
(E) That any excess proceeds of the sale over the lien amount and costs of sale will be retained by the owner and may be reclaimed by the occupant or claimed by another person at any time for a period of one year from the sale and that thereafter the proceeds will escheat to the county in which the sale is to take place.
(2) A blank declaration in opposition to lien sale that shall be in substantially the following form:
“DECLARATION IN OPPOSITION TO LIEN SALE
You must complete all sections of this declaration. If the owner cannot contact or serve you at the physical address and telephone number that you provide below, this declaration shall be void and the owner may sell your stored property.
I, _____ (occupant’s name) _____ , have received the notice of lien sale
of the property stored at _____ (location and space #) _____ .
I oppose the lien sale of the property, because (provide a brief explanation of the reason the owner’s lien may not be valid. For example, “I have paid my rent and other charges in full”):
My current address and telephone number are:
(physical address)
(city)
(state)
(ZIP Code)
(telephone number)
I understand that the lienholder may file an action against me in any court of competent jurisdiction, including small claims court, at the address provided above, and if a judgment is given in his or her favor, I may be liable for the court costs. I also understand that this declaration is not valid if (a) the address provided in this declaration is not my current address or (b) I change my address at any time prior to service of an action on the lien and I do not provide the owner the address within 10 days of the change.
I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct, and that this declaration was signed by me on _____ (date) _____ at _____ (place) _____ .
(signature of occupant).
Return this declaration to:
(self-service storage facility address)”
(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 7.

 Section 21705 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 6 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21705.
 (a) If the notice has been sent as required by Section 21703 and the total sum due has not been paid within 14 days of the termination date specified in the preliminary lien notice, the lien imposed by this chapter attaches as of that date and the owner may do all of the following:
(1) Deny an occupant access to the space.
(2) Enter the space.
(3) Remove any property found therein to a place of safekeeping.
(b) Upon taking the actions described in subdivision (a), the owner shall send to the occupant, by certified mail, or by first-class mail if the owner obtains a certificate of mailing, postage prepaid, addressed to the occupant’s last known address, and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) of Section 21712, both of the following:
(1) A notice of lien sale that states all of the following:
(A) That the occupant’s right to use the storage space has terminated and that the occupant no longer has access to the stored property.
(B) That the stored property is subject to a lien, the current amount of the lien, and that the lien will continue to increase if rent is not paid.
(C) That the property will be sold to satisfy the lien after a specified date that is not less than 14 days from the date of mailing the notice, unless the occupant executes and returns by certified mail a declaration in opposition to lien sale in the form set forth in paragraph (2).
(D) A statement that the occupant may regain full use of the space by paying the full lien amount prior to the date specified in subparagraph (C).
(E) That any excess proceeds of the sale over the lien amount and costs of sale will be retained by the owner and may be reclaimed by the occupant or claimed by another person at any time for a period of one year from the sale and that thereafter the proceeds will escheat to the county in which the sale is to take place.
(2) A blank declaration in opposition to lien sale that shall be in substantially the following form:
“DECLARATION IN OPPOSITION TO LIEN SALE
You must complete all sections of this declaration. If the owner cannot contact or serve you at the physical address and telephone number that you provide below, this declaration shall be void and the owner may sell your stored property.
I, _____ (occupant’s name) _____ , have received the notice of lien sale
of the property stored at _____ (location and space #) _____ .
I oppose the lien sale of the property, because (provide a brief explanation of the reason the owner’s lien may not be valid. For example, “I have paid my rent and other charges in full”):
My current address and telephone number are:
(physical address)
(city)
(state)
(ZIP Code)
(telephone number)
I understand that the lienholder may file an action against me in any court of competent jurisdiction, including small claims court, at the address provided above, and if a judgment is given in his or her favor, I may be liable for the court costs. I also understand that this declaration is not valid if (a) the address provided in this declaration is not my current address or (b) I change my address at any time prior to service of an action on the lien and I do not provide the owner the address within 10 days of the change.
I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct, and that this declaration was signed by me on _____ (date) _____ at _____ (place) _____ .
(signature of occupant).
Return this declaration to:
(self-service storage facility address)”
(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 8.

 Section 21712 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

21712.
 (a) Each contract for the rental or lease of individual storage space in a self-service storage facility shall be in writing and shall contain, in addition to the provisions otherwise required or permitted by law to be included, a statement that the occupant’s property will be subject to a claim of lien and may even be sold to satisfy the lien if the rent or other charges due remain unpaid for 14 consecutive days and that those actions are authorized by this chapter.
(b) The provisions of this chapter shall not apply, and the lien authorized by this chapter shall not attach, unless the rental agreement requests, and provides space for, the occupant to give the name and mailing or email address of another person to whom the preliminary lien notice and subsequent notices required to be given under this chapter may be sent. Notices sent pursuant to Section 21703 or 21705 shall be sent to the occupant’s address and the alternative address, if both addresses are provided by the occupant. Failure of an occupant to provide an alternative address shall not affect an owner’s remedies under this chapter or under any other provision of law.
(c) (1) The owner may send the notices required by Sections 21703 and 21705 to the occupant and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) by electronic mail only if both of the following conditions are met:
(A) The rental agreement states that lien notices may be sent to the occupant and to the alternate by electronic mail.
(B) The occupant provides a written signature on the rental agreement consenting to receive lien notices by electronic mail.
(2) An owner may demonstrate actual delivery and receipt by any of the following:
(A) The occupant acknowledges receipt of the electronic transmission of the document by executing an electronic signature, which is defined as an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, an electronic record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the electronic record.
(B) The document is posted on the owner’s secure internet website, and there is evidence demonstrating that the occupant logged onto the licensee’s secure internet website and downloaded, printed, viewed, or otherwise acknowledged receipt of the document.
(C) The document is transmitted to the occupant through an application on an internet website that is secured by password, biometric identifier, or other technology, and there is evidence demonstrating that the occupant logged into the application and viewed or otherwise acknowledged receipt of the document.
(D) The occupant acknowledges receipt of the electronic transmission of the document by replying to the electronic mail communication, and there is delivery path evidence that the reply email was sent from the occupant’s email address.
(E) If the owner is unable to demonstrate actual delivery and receipt pursuant to this paragraph, the owner shall resend the notice by mail to the occupant’s last known mailing address in the manner originally specified by the underlying provisions of Section 21703 or 21705.
(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 9.

 Section 21712 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 9 of Chapter 227 of the Statutes of 2017, is repealed.

SEC. 10.

 Section 21712 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

21712.
 (a) Each contract for the rental or lease of individual storage space in a self-service storage facility shall be in writing and shall contain, in addition to the provisions otherwise required or permitted by law to be included, a statement that the occupant’s property will be subject to a claim of lien and may even be sold to satisfy the lien if the rent or other charges due remain unpaid for 14 consecutive days and that those actions are authorized by this chapter.
(b) The provisions of this chapter shall not apply, and the lien authorized by this chapter shall not attach, unless the rental agreement requests, and provides space for, the occupant to give the name and mailing or email address of another person to whom the preliminary lien notice and subsequent notices required to be given under this chapter may be sent. Notices sent pursuant to Section 21703 or 21705 shall be sent to the occupant’s address and the alternative address, if both addresses are provided by the occupant. Failure of an occupant to provide an alternative address shall not affect an owner’s remedies under this chapter or under any other provision of law.
(c) (1) The owner may send the notices required by Sections 21703 and 21705 to the occupant and to the alternative address specified in subdivision (b) by electronic mail only if both of the following conditions are met:
(A) The rental agreement states that lien notices may be sent to the occupant and to the alternate by electronic mail.
(B) The occupant provides a written signature on the rental agreement consenting to receive lien notices by electronic mail.
(2) An owner may demonstrate actual delivery and receipt by any of the following:
(A) The occupant acknowledges receipt of the electronic transmission of the document by executing an electronic signature, which is defined as an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, an electronic record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the electronic record.
(B) The document is posted on the owner’s secure internet website, and there is evidence demonstrating that the occupant logged onto the licensee’s secure internet website and downloaded, printed, viewed, or otherwise acknowledged receipt of the document.
(C) The document is transmitted to the occupant through an application on an internet website that is secured by password, biometric identifier, or other technology, and there is evidence demonstrating that the occupant logged into the application and viewed or otherwise acknowledged receipt of the document.
(D) If the owner is unable to demonstrate actual delivery and receipt pursuant to this paragraph, the owner shall resend the notice by mail to the occupant’s last known mailing address in the manner originally specified by the underlying provisions of Section 21703 or 21705.
(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 11.

 Section 55.32 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

55.32.
 (a) An attorney who provides a demand letter, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3, shall do all of the following:
(1) Include the attorney’s State Bar license number in the demand letter.
(2) Within five business days of providing the demand letter, send a copy of the demand letter, and submit information about the demand letter in a standard format specified by the California Commission on Disability Access on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code, to the commission.
(b) An attorney who sends or serves a complaint, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3, shall do both of the following:
(1) Send a copy of the complaint and submit information about the complaint in a standard format specified by the California Commission on Disability Access on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code to the commission within five business days of sending or serving the complaint.
(2) Notify the California Commission on Disability Access within five business days of judgment, settlement, or dismissal of the claim or claims alleged in the complaint of the following information in a standard format specified by the commission on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code:
(A) The date of the judgment, settlement, or dismissal.
(B) Whether or not the construction-related accessibility violations alleged in the complaint were remedied in whole or in part after the plaintiff filed a complaint or provided a demand letter, as defined by Section 55.3.
(C) If the construction-related accessibility violations alleged in the complaint were not remedied in whole or in part after the plaintiff filed a complaint or provided a demand letter, as defined by Section 55.3, whether or not another favorable result was achieved after the plaintiff filed the complaint or provided the demand letter.
(D) Whether or not the defendant submitted an application for an early evaluation conference and stay pursuant to Section 55.54, whether the defendant requested a site inspection, the date of any early evaluation conference, and the date of any site inspection.
(c) A violation of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) or subdivision (b) shall constitute cause for the imposition of discipline of an attorney if a copy of the demand letter, complaint, or notification of a case outcome is not sent to the California Commission on Disability Access in the standard format specified on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code within five business days. In the event the State Bar receives information indicating that an attorney has failed to send a copy of the demand letter, complaint, or notification of a case outcome to the California Commission on Disability Access in the standard format specified on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code within five business days, the State Bar shall investigate to determine whether paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) or subdivision (b) has been violated.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), an attorney is not required to send to the California Commission on Disability Access a copy of any subsequent demand letter or amended complaint in the same dispute following the initial demand letter or complaint, unless that subsequent demand letter or amended complaint alleges a new construction-related accessibility claim.
(e) A demand letter or notification of a case outcome sent to the California Commission on Disability Access shall be for the informational purposes of Section 14985.8 of the Government Code. A demand letter received by the State Bar from the recipient of the demand letter shall be reviewed by the State Bar to determine whether subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 55.31 has been violated.
(f) (1) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, on or before April 30, 2019, and annually as part of the Annual Discipline Report, no later than April 30 thereafter, the State Bar shall report to the Legislature and the Chairs of the Senate and Assembly Judiciary Committees, both of the following with respect to demand letters received by the State Bar:
(A) The number of investigations opened to date on a suspected violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 55.31.
(B) Whether any disciplinary action resulted from the investigation, and the results of that disciplinary action.
(2) A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(g) The California Commission on Disability Access shall review and report on the demand letters, complaints, and notifications of case outcomes it receives as provided in Section 14985.8 of the Government Code.
(h) The expiration of any ground for discipline of an attorney shall not affect the imposition of discipline for any act prior to the expiration. An act or omission that constituted cause for imposition of discipline of an attorney when committed or omitted prior to January 1, 2019, shall continue to constitute cause for the imposition of discipline of that attorney on and after January 1, 2019.
(i) Paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) and subdivision (b) shall not apply to a demand letter or complaint sent or filed by an attorney employed or retained by a qualified legal services project or a qualified support center, as defined in Section 6213 of the Business and Professions Code, when acting within the scope of employment in asserting a construction-related accessibility claim. The Legislature finds and declares that qualified legal services projects and support centers are extensively regulated by the State Bar of California, and that there is no evidence of any abusive use of demand letters or complaints by these organizations. The Legislature further finds that, in light of the evidence of the extraordinarily small number of construction-related accessibility cases brought by regulated legal services programs, and given the resources of those programs, exempting regulated legal services programs from the requirements of this section to report to the California Commission on Disability Access will not affect the purpose of the reporting to, and tabulation by, the commission of all other construction-related accessibility claims.

SEC. 12.

 Section 1102.19 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1102.19.
 (a) On and after July 1, 2021, a seller of a real property subject to this article that is located in a high or very high fire hazard severity zone, as identified by the Director of Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 51178 of the Government Code or Article 9 (commencing with Section 4201) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 4 of the Public Resources Code, shall provide to the buyer documentation stating that the property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or local vegetation management ordinances, as follows:
(1) In a local jurisdiction that has enacted an ordinance requiring an owner of real property to obtain documentation that the property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, the seller shall provide the buyer with a copy of the documentation that complies with the requirements of that local ordinance and information on the local agency from which a copy of that documentation may be obtained.
(2) In a local jurisdiction that has not enacted an ordinance for an owner of real property to obtain documentation that a property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, and if a state or local agency, or other government entity, or other qualified nonprofit entity, provides an inspection with documentation for the jurisdiction in which the property is located, the seller shall provide the buyer with the documentation obtained in the six-month period preceding the date the seller enters into a transaction to sell that real property and provide information on the local agency from which a copy of that documentation may be obtained.
(b) On and after July 1, 2021, if the seller of a real property described in subdivision (a) has not obtained documentation of compliance in accordance with paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a), the seller and the buyer shall enter into a written agreement pursuant to which the buyer agrees to obtain documentation of compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance as follows:
(1) In a local jurisdiction that has enacted an ordinance requiring an owner or buyer to obtain documentation of compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, the buyer shall comply with that ordinance.
(2) In a local jurisdiction that has not enacted an ordinance requiring an owner or buyer to obtain documentation of compliance, and if a state or local agency, or other government entity, or other qualified nonprofit entity, provides an inspection with documentation for the jurisdiction in which the property is located, the buyer shall obtain documentation of compliance within one year of the date of the close of escrow.
(c) Nothing in this section, including the existence of an agreement between a buyer and seller pursuant to subdivision (b), shall limit the ability of a state or local agency to enforce defensible space requirements pursuant to Section 51182 of the Government Code, Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code, or other applicable statutes, regulations, and local ordinances.

SEC. 13.

 Section 1788.18 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1788.18.
 (a) Upon receipt from a debtor of all of the following, a debt collector shall cease collection activities until completion of the review provided in subdivision (d):
(1) A copy of a police report filed by the debtor alleging that the debtor is the victim of an identity theft crime, including, but not limited to, a violation of Section 530.5 of the Penal Code, for the specific debt being collected by the debt collector.
(2) The debtor’s written statement that the debtor claims to be the victim of identity theft with respect to the specific debt being collected by the debt collector.
(b) The written statement described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall consist of any of the following:
(1) A Federal Trade Commission’s identity theft report.
(2) A written statement that contains the content of the Identity Theft Victim’s Fraudulent Account Information Request offered to the public by the California Office of Privacy Protection.
(3) A written statement that certifies that the representations are true, correct, and contain no material omissions of fact to the best knowledge and belief of the person submitting the certification. A person submitting the certification who declares as true any material matter pursuant to this subdivision that they know to be false is guilty of a misdemeanor. The statement shall contain or be accompanied by the following, to the extent that an item listed below is relevant to the debtor’s allegation of identity theft with respect to the debt in question:
(A) A statement that the debtor is a victim of identity theft.
(B) A copy of the debtor’s driver’s license or identification card, as issued by the state.
(C) Any other identification document that supports the statement of identity theft.
(D) Specific facts supporting the claim of identity theft, if available.
(E) Any explanation showing that the debtor did not incur the debt.
(F) Any available correspondence disputing the debt after transaction information has been provided to the debtor.
(G) Documentation of the residence of the debtor at the time of the alleged debt. This may include copies of bills and statements, such as utility bills, tax statements, or other statements from businesses sent to the debtor, showing that the debtor lived at another residence at the time the debt was incurred.
(H) A telephone number for contacting the debtor concerning any additional information or questions, or direction that further communications to the debtor be in writing only, with the mailing address specified in the statement.
(I) To the extent the debtor has information concerning who may have incurred the debt, the identification of any person whom the debtor believes is responsible.
(J) An express statement that the debtor did not authorize the use of the debtor’s name or personal information for incurring the debt.
(K) The certification required pursuant to this paragraph shall be sufficient if it is in substantially the following form:
“I certify the representations made are true, correct, and
contain no material omissions of fact.
_____ (Date and Place) _____ _____ (Signature) _____ ”
(c) If a debtor notifies a debt collector orally that they are a victim of identity theft, the debt collector shall notify the debtor, orally or in writing, that the debtor’s claim must be in writing. If a debtor notifies a debt collector in writing that they are a victim of identity theft, but omits information required pursuant to subdivision (a) or, if applicable, the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if the debt collector does not cease collection activities, the debt collector shall provide written notice to the debtor of the additional information that is required, or the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), as applicable, or send the debtor a copy of the Federal Trade Commission’s Affidavit of Identity Theft form.
(d) Within 10 business days of receiving the complete statement and information described in subdivision (a), the debt collector shall, if it furnished adverse information about the debtor to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the consumer credit reporting agency that the account is disputed, and initiate a review considering all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor. The debt collector shall send notice of its determination to the debtor no later than 10 business days after concluding the review. The debt collector may recommence debt collection activities only upon making a good faith determination that the information does not establish that the debtor is not responsible for the specific debt in question. The debt collector’s determination shall be made in a manner consistent with the provisions of subsection (1) of Section 1692 of Title 15 of the United States Code, as incorporated by Section 1788.17 of this code. The debt collector shall notify the debtor in writing of that determination and the basis for that determination before proceeding with any further collection activities. The debt collector’s determination shall be based on all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor.
(e) No inference or presumption that the debt is valid or invalid, or that the debtor is liable or not liable for the debt, shall arise if the debt collector decides after the review described in subdivision (d) to cease or recommence the debt collection activities. The exercise or nonexercise of rights under this section is not a waiver of any other right or defense of the debtor or debt collector.
(f) The statement and supporting documents that comply with subdivision (a) may also satisfy, to the extent those documents meet the requirements of, the notice requirement of paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 1798.93.
(g) A debt collector who ceases collection activities under this section and does not recommence those collection activities shall do all of the following:
(1) If the debt collector has furnished adverse information to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the agency to delete that information no later than 10 business days after making its determination.
(2) Notify the creditor no later than 10 business days after making its determination that debt collection activities have been terminated based upon the debtor’s claim of identity theft.
(h) A debt collector who has possession of documents that the debtor is entitled to request from a creditor pursuant to Section 530.8 of the Penal Code is authorized to provide those documents to the debtor.
(i) Notwithstanding subdivision (h) of Section 1788.2, for the purposes of this section, “debtor” means a natural person, firm, association, organization, partnership, business trust, company, corporation, or limited liability company from which a debt collector seeks to collect a debt that is due and owing or alleged to be due and owing from the person or entity. The remedies provided by this title shall apply equally to violations of this section.

SEC. 14.

 Section 2924.8 is added to the Civil Code, to read:

2924.8.
 (a) Upon posting a notice of sale pursuant to Section 2924f, a trustee or authorized agent shall also post the following notice, in the manner required for posting the notice of sale on the property to be sold, and a mortgagee, trustee, beneficiary, or authorized agent, concurrently with the mailing of the notice of sale pursuant to Section 2924b, shall send by first-class mail in an envelope addressed to the “Resident of property subject to foreclosure sale” the following notice in English and the languages described in Section 1632:
Foreclosure process has begun on this property, which may affect your right to continue to live in this property. Twenty days or more after the date of this notice, this property may be sold at foreclosure. If you are renting this property, the new property owner may either give you a new lease or rental agreement or provide you with a 90-day eviction notice. You may have a right to stay in your home for longer than 90 days. If you have a fixed-term lease, the new owner must honor the lease unless the new owner will occupy the property as a primary residence or in other limited circumstances. Also, in some cases and in some cities with a “just cause for eviction” law, you may not have to move at all. All rights and obligations under your lease or tenancy, including your obligation to pay rent, will continue after the foreclosure sale. You may wish to contact a lawyer or your local legal aid office or housing counseling agency to discuss any rights you may have.
(b) It is an infraction to tear down the notice described in subdivision (a) within 72 hours of posting. Violators shall be subject to a fine of one hundred dollars ($100).
(c) The Department of Business Oversight and the Department of Real Estate shall make available translations of the notice described in subdivision (a) which may be used by a mortgagee, trustee, beneficiary, or authorized agent to satisfy the requirements of this section.
(d) This section shall only apply to loans secured by residential real property, and if the billing address for the mortgage note is different than the property address.
(e) This section shall become operative on March 1, 2021.

SEC. 15.

 Section 430.41 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

430.41.
 (a) Before filing a demurrer pursuant to this chapter, the demurring party shall meet and confer in person or by telephone with the party who filed the pleading that is subject to demurrer for the purpose of determining whether an agreement can be reached that would resolve the objections to be raised in the demurrer. If an amended complaint, cross-complaint, or answer is filed, the responding party shall meet and confer again with the party who filed the amended pleading before filing a demurrer to the amended pleading.
(1) As part of the meet and confer process, the demurring party shall identify all of the specific causes of action that it believes are subject to demurrer and identify with legal support the basis of the deficiencies. The party who filed the complaint, cross-complaint, or answer shall provide legal support for its position that the pleading is legally sufficient or, in the alternative, how the complaint, cross-complaint, or answer could be amended to cure any legal insufficiency.
(2) The parties shall meet and confer at least five days before the date the responsive pleading is due. If the parties are not able to meet and confer at least five days prior to the date the responsive pleading is due, the demurring party shall be granted an automatic 30-day extension of time within which to file a responsive pleading, by filing and serving, on or before the date on which a demurrer would be due, a declaration stating under penalty of perjury that a good faith attempt to meet and confer was made and explaining the reasons why the parties could not meet and confer. The 30-day extension shall commence from the date the responsive pleading was previously due, and the demurring party shall not be subject to default during the period of the extension. Any further extensions shall be obtained by court order upon a showing of good cause.
(3) The demurring party shall file and serve with the demurrer a declaration stating either of the following:
(A) The means by which the demurring party met and conferred with the party who filed the pleading subject to demurrer, and that the parties did not reach an agreement resolving the objections raised in the demurrer.
(B) That the party who filed the pleading subject to demurrer failed to respond to the meet and confer request of the demurring party or otherwise failed to meet and confer in good faith.
(4) A determination by the court that the meet and confer process was insufficient shall not be grounds to overrule or sustain a demurrer.
(b) A party demurring to a pleading that has been amended after a demurrer to an earlier version of the pleading was sustained shall not demur to any portion of the amended complaint, cross-complaint, or answer on grounds that could have been raised by demurrer to the earlier version of the complaint, cross-complaint, or answer.
(c) If a court sustains a demurrer to one or more causes of action and grants leave to amend, the court may order a conference of the parties before an amended complaint or cross-complaint or a demurrer to an amended complaint or cross-complaint, may be filed. If a conference is held, the court shall not preclude a party from filing a demurrer and the time to file a demurrer shall not begin until after the conference has concluded. This section does not prohibit the court from ordering a conference on its own motion at any time or prevent a party from requesting that the court order a conference to be held.
(d) This section does not apply to the following civil actions:
(1) An action in which a party not represented by counsel is incarcerated in a local, state, or federal correctional institution.
(2) A proceeding in forcible entry, forcible detainer, or unlawful detainer.
(e) (1) In response to a demurrer and prior to the case being at issue, a complaint or cross-complaint shall not be amended more than three times, absent an offer to the trial court as to such additional facts to be pleaded that there is a reasonable possibility the defect can be cured to state a cause of action. The three-amendment limit shall not include an amendment made without leave of the court pursuant to Section 472, provided the amendment is made before a demurrer to the original complaint or cross-complaint is filed.
(2) Nothing in this section affects the rights of a party to amend its pleading or respond to an amended pleading after the case is at issue.
(f) Nothing in this section affects appellate review or the rights of a party pursuant to Section 430.80.
(g) If a demurrer is overruled as to a cause of action and that cause of action is not further amended, the demurring party preserves its right to appeal after final judgment without filing a further demurrer.

SEC. 16.

 Section 435.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

435.5.
 (a) Before filing a motion to strike pursuant to this chapter, the moving party shall meet and confer in person or by telephone with the party who filed the pleading that is subject to the motion to strike for the purpose of determining if an agreement can be reached that resolves the objections to be raised in the motion to strike. If an amended pleading is filed, the responding party shall meet and confer again with the party who filed the amended pleading before filing a motion to strike the amended pleading.
(1) As part of the meet and confer process, the moving party shall identify all of the specific allegations that it believes are subject to being stricken and identify with legal support the basis of the deficiencies. The party who filed the pleading shall provide legal support for its position that the pleading is legally sufficient, or, in the alternative, how the pleading could be amended to cure any legal insufficiency.
(2) The parties shall meet and confer at least five days before the date a motion to strike must be filed. If the parties are unable to meet and confer at least five days before the date the motion to strike must be filed, the moving party shall be granted an automatic 30-day extension of time within which to file a motion to strike, by filing and serving, on or before the date a motion to strike must be filed, a declaration stating under penalty of perjury that a good faith attempt to meet and confer was made and explaining the reasons why the parties could not meet and confer. The 30-day extension shall commence from the date the motion to strike was previously due, and the moving party shall not be subject to default during the period of the extension. Any further extensions shall be obtained by court order upon a showing of good cause.
(3) The moving party shall file and serve with the motion to strike a declaration stating either of the following:
(A) The means by which the moving party met and conferred with the party who filed the pleading subject to the motion to strike, and that the parties did not reach an agreement resolving the objections raised by the motion to strike.
(B) That the party who filed the pleading subject to the motion to strike failed to respond to the meet and confer request of the moving party or otherwise failed to meet and confer in good faith.
(4) A determination by the court that the meet and confer process was insufficient shall not be grounds to grant or deny the motion to strike.
(b) A party moving to strike a pleading that has been amended after a motion to strike an earlier version of the pleading was granted shall not move to strike any portion of the pleadings on grounds that could have been raised by a motion to strike as to the earlier version of the pleading.
(c) (1) If a court grants a motion to strike and grants leave to amend, the court may order a conference of the parties before an amended pleading, or a motion to strike an amended pleading, may be filed. If the conference is held, the court shall not preclude a party from filing a motion to strike and the time to file a motion to strike shall not begin until after the conference has concluded.
(2) This section does not prohibit the court from ordering a conference on its own motion at any time or prevent a party from requesting that the court order that a conference be held.
(d) This section does not apply to any of the following:
(1) An action in which a party not represented by counsel is incarcerated in a local, state, or federal correctional institution.
(2) A proceeding in forcible entry, forcible detainer, or unlawful detainer.
(3) A special motion brought pursuant to Section 425.16.
(4) A motion brought less than 30 days before trial.
(e) (1) In response to a motion to strike and before the case is at issue, a pleading shall not be amended more than three times, absent an offer to the trial court of additional facts to be pleaded that, if pleaded, would result in a reasonable possibility that the defect can be cured. The three-amendment limit does not include an amendment made without leave of the court pursuant to Section 472, if the amendment is made before a motion to strike as to the original pleading is filed.
(2) This section does not affect the rights of a party to amend its pleading or respond to an amended pleading after the case is at issue.
(f) This section does not affect appellate review or the rights of a party pursuant to Section 430.80.
(g) If a motion to strike is denied and the pleading is not further amended, the moving party preserves its right to appeal after final judgment without filing a further motion to strike.

SEC. 17.

 Section 439 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

439.
 (a) Before filing a motion for judgment on the pleadings pursuant to this chapter, the moving party shall meet and confer in person or by telephone with the party who filed the pleading that is subject to the motion for judgment on the pleadings for the purpose of determining if an agreement can be reached that resolves the claims to be raised in the motion for judgment on the pleadings. If an amended pleading is filed, the responding party shall meet and confer again with the party who filed the amended pleading before filing a motion for judgment on the pleadings against the amended pleading.
(1) As part of the meet and confer process, the moving party shall identify all of the specific allegations that it believes are subject to judgment and identify with legal support the basis of the claims. The party who filed the pleading shall provide legal support for its position that the pleading is not subject to judgment, or, in the alternative, how the pleading could be amended to cure any claims it is subject to judgment.
(2) The parties shall meet and confer at least five days before the date a motion for judgment on the pleadings is filed. If the parties are unable to meet and confer by that time, the moving party shall be granted an automatic 30-day extension of time within which to file a motion for judgment on the pleadings, by filing and serving, on or before the date a motion for judgment on the pleadings must be filed, a declaration stating under penalty of perjury that a good faith attempt to meet and confer was made and explaining the reasons why the parties could not meet and confer. The 30-day extension shall commence from the date the motion for judgment on the pleadings was previously filed, and the moving party shall not be subject to default during the period of the extension. Any further extensions shall be obtained by court order upon a showing of good cause.
(3) The moving party shall file and serve with the motion for judgment on the pleadings a declaration stating either of the following:
(A) The means by which the moving party met and conferred with the party who filed the pleading subject to the motion for judgment on the pleadings, and that the parties did not reach an agreement resolving the claims raised by the motion for judgment on the pleadings.
(B) That the party who filed the pleading subject to the motion for judgment on the pleadings failed to respond to the meet and confer request of the moving party or otherwise failed to meet and confer in good faith.
(4) A determination by the court that the meet and confer process was insufficient shall not be grounds to grant or deny the motion for judgment on the pleadings.
(b) A party moving for judgment on a pleading that has been amended after a motion for judgment on the pleadings on an earlier version of the pleading was granted shall not move for judgment on any portion of the pleadings on grounds that could have been raised by a motion for judgment on the pleadings as to the earlier version of the pleading.
(c) (1) If a court grants a motion for judgment on the pleadings and grants leave to amend, the court may order a conference of the parties before an amended pleading, or a motion for judgment on an amended pleading, may be filed. If the conference is held, the court shall not preclude a party from filing a motion for judgment on the pleadings and the time to file a motion for judgment on the pleadings shall not begin until after the conference has concluded.
(2) This section does not prohibit the court from ordering a conference on its own motion at any time or prevent a party from requesting that the court order that a conference be held.
(d) This section does not apply to any of the following:
(1) An action in which a party not represented by counsel is incarcerated in a local, state, or federal correctional institution.
(2) A proceeding in forcible entry, forcible detainer, or unlawful detainer.
(3) A special motion brought pursuant to Section 425.16.
(4) A motion brought less than 30 days before trial.
(e) (1) In response to a motion for judgment on the pleadings and before the case is at issue, a pleading shall not be amended more than three times, absent an offer to the trial court of additional facts to be pleaded that, if pleaded, would result in a reasonable possibility that the defect can be cured. The three-amendment limit does not include an amendment made without leave of the court pursuant to Section 472, if the amendment is made before a motion for judgments on the pleadings as to the original pleading is filed.
(2) This section does not affect the rights of a party to amend its pleading or respond to an amended pleading after the case is at issue.
(f) This section does not affect appellate review or the rights of a party pursuant to Section 430.80.
(g) If a motion for judgment on the pleadings is denied and the pleading is not further amended, the moving party preserves its right to appeal after final judgment without filing a further motion for judgment on the pleadings.

SEC. 18.

 Section 472 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 418 of the Statutes of 2015, is repealed.

SEC. 19.

 Section 472 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 273 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

472.
 (a) A party may amend its pleading once without leave of the court at any time before the answer, demurrer, or motion to strike is filed, or after a demurrer or motion to strike is filed but before the demurrer or motion to strike is heard if the amended pleading is filed and served no later than the date for filing an opposition to the demurrer or motion to strike. A party may amend the pleading after the date for filing an opposition to the demurrer or motion to strike, upon stipulation by the parties. The time for responding to an amended pleading shall be computed from the date of service of the amended pleading.
(b) This section shall not apply to a special motion brought pursuant to Section 425.16.

SEC. 20.

 Section 472a of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended by Section 4 of Chapter 418 of the Statutes of 2015, is amended to read:

472a.
 (a) A demurrer is not waived by an answer filed at the same time.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by rule adopted by the Judicial Council, if a demurrer to a complaint or to a cross-complaint is overruled and there is no answer filed, the court shall allow an answer to be filed upon such terms as may be just. If a demurrer to the answer is overruled, the action shall proceed as if no demurrer had been interposed, and the facts alleged in the answer shall be considered as denied to the extent mentioned in Section 431.20.
(c) Subject to the limitations imposed by subdivision (e) of Section 430.41, if a demurrer is sustained, the court may grant leave to amend the pleading upon any terms as may be just and shall fix the time within which the amendment or amended pleading shall be filed. If a demurrer is stricken pursuant to Section 436 and there is no answer filed, the court shall allow an answer to be filed on terms that are just.
(d) If a motion to strike is granted pursuant to Section 436, the court may order that an amendment or amended pleading be filed upon terms it deems proper. If a motion to strike a complaint or cross-complaint, or portion thereof, is denied, the court shall allow the party filing the motion to strike to file an answer.
(e) If a motion to dismiss an action pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 583.210) of Chapter 1.5 of Title 8 is denied, the court shall allow a pleading to be filed.

SEC. 21.

 Section 472a of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended by Section 23 of Chapter 86 of the Statutes of 2016, is repealed.

SEC. 22.

 Section 673 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

673.
 (a) An assignee of a right represented by a judgment may become an assignee of record by filing with the clerk of the court which entered the judgment an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment.
(b) An acknowledgment of assignment of judgment shall contain all of the following:
(1) The title of the court where the judgment is entered and the cause and number of the action.
(2) The date of entry of the judgment and of any renewals of the judgment and where entered in the records of the court.
(3) The name and address of the judgment creditor and name and last known address of the judgment debtor.
(4) A statement describing the right represented by the judgment that is assigned to the assignee.
(5) The name and address of the assignee.
(c) The acknowledgment of assignment of judgment shall be:
(1) Made in the manner of an acknowledgment of a conveyance of real property.
(2) Executed and acknowledged by the judgment creditor or by the prior assignee of record if there is one.
(d) (1) If an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment purports to be executed or acknowledged by an authorized agent of the judgment creditor or an authorized agent of a prior assignee of record, then documentation sufficient to evidence that authorization shall be filed together with the acknowledgment of assignment of judgment.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an assignee of a right represented by a judgment may also become an assignee of record by filing with the clerk of the court that entered judgment a court order or other documentation that evidences assignment of judgment by operation of law.

SEC. 23.

 Section 681.020 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

681.020.
 An assignee of a judgment is not entitled to enforce the judgment under this title unless an acknowledgment of assignment of judgment to that assignee has been filed or the assignee has otherwise become an assignee of record under Section 673.

SEC. 24.

 Section 708.150 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

708.150.
 (a) If a corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization is served with an order to appear for an examination, it shall designate to appear and be examined one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons who are familiar with its property and debts.
(b) If the order to appear for an examination requires the appearance of a specified individual, the specified individual shall appear for the examination and may be accompanied by one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons familiar with the property and debts of the corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization.
(c) If the order to appear for the examination does not require the appearance of a specified individual, the order shall advise the corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization of its duty to make a designation under subdivision (a).
(d) A corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization, whether or not a party, may appear at an examination through any authorized officer, director, or employee, whether or not the person is an attorney.

SEC. 25.

 Section 1161.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

1161.2.
 (a) (1) The clerk shall allow access to limited civil case records filed under this chapter, including the court file, index, and register of actions, only as follows:
(A) To a party to the action, including a party’s attorney.
(B) To a person who provides the clerk with the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant and the address of the premises, including the apartment or unit number, if any.
(C) To a resident of the premises who provides the clerk with the name of one of the parties or the case number and shows proof of residency.
(D) To a person by order of the court, which may be granted ex parte, on a showing of good cause.
(E) To any person by order of the court if judgment is entered for the plaintiff after trial more than 60 days since the filing of the complaint. The court shall issue the order upon issuing judgment for the plaintiff.
(F) Except as provided in subparagraph (G), to any other person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, in which case the clerk shall allow access to any court records in the action. If a default or default judgment is set aside more than 60 days after the complaint has been filed, this section shall apply as if the complaint had been filed on the date the default or default judgment is set aside.
(G) In the case of a complaint involving residential property based on Section 1161a as indicated in the caption of the complaint, as required in subdivision (c) of Section 1166, to any other person, if 60 days have elapsed since the complaint was filed with the court, and, as of that date, judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff, after a trial.
(2) This section shall not be construed to prohibit the court from issuing an order that bars access to the court record in an action filed under this chapter if the parties to the action so stipulate.
(b) (1) For purposes of this section, “good cause” includes, but is not limited to, both of the following:
(A) The gathering of newsworthy facts by a person described in Section 1070 of the Evidence Code.
(B) The gathering of evidence by a party to an unlawful detainer action solely for the purpose of making a request for judicial notice pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 452 of the Evidence Code.
(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that a simple procedure be established to request the ex parte order described in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
(c) Upon the filing of a case so restricted, the court clerk shall mail notice to each defendant named in the action. The notice shall be mailed to the address provided in the complaint. The notice shall contain a statement that an unlawful detainer complaint (eviction action) has been filed naming that party as a defendant, and that access to the court file will be delayed for 60 days except to a party, an attorney for one of the parties, or any other person who (1) provides to the clerk the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant in the action and provides to the clerk the address, including any applicable apartment, unit, or space number, of the subject premises, or (2) provides to the clerk the name of one of the parties in the action or the case number and can establish through proper identification that the person lives at the subject premises. The notice shall also contain a statement that access to the court index, register of actions, or other records is not permitted until 60 days after the complaint is filed, except pursuant to an order upon a showing of good cause for access. The notice shall contain on its face the following information:
(1) The name and telephone number of the county bar association.
(2) The name and telephone number of any entity that requests inclusion on the notice and demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that it has been certified by the State Bar of California as a lawyer referral service and maintains a panel of attorneys qualified in the practice of landlord-tenant law pursuant to the minimum standards for a lawyer referral service established by the State Bar of California and Section 6155 of the Business and Professions Code.
(3) The following statement:

“The State Bar of California certifies lawyer referral services in California and publishes a list of certified lawyer referral services organized by county. To locate a lawyer referral service in your county, go to the State Bar’s internet website at www.calbar.ca.gov or call 1-866-442-2529.”

(4) The name and telephone number of an office or offices funded by the federal Legal Services Corporation or qualified legal services projects that receive funds distributed pursuant to Section 6216 of the Business and Professions Code that provide legal services to low-income persons in the county in which the action is filed. The notice shall state that these telephone numbers may be called for legal advice regarding the case. The notice shall be issued between 24 and 48 hours of the filing of the complaint, excluding weekends and holidays. One copy of the notice shall be addressed to “all occupants” and mailed separately to the subject premises. The notice shall not constitute service of the summons and complaint.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, the court shall charge an additional fee of fifteen dollars ($15) for filing a first appearance by the plaintiff. This fee shall be added to the uniform filing fee for actions filed under this chapter.
(e) This section does not apply to a case that seeks to terminate a mobilehome park tenancy if the statement of the character of the proceeding in the caption of the complaint clearly indicates that the complaint seeks termination of a mobilehome park tenancy.
(f) This section does not alter any provision of the Evidence Code.

SEC. 26.

 Section 1540 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

1540.
 (a) Any person, excluding another state, who claims to have been the owner, as defined in subdivision (d), of property paid or delivered to the Controller under this chapter may file a claim to the property or to the net proceeds from its sale. The claim shall be on a form prescribed by the Controller and shall be verified by the claimant.
(b) The Controller shall consider each claim within 180 days after it is filed to determine if the claimant is the owner, as defined in subdivision (d), and may hold a hearing and receive evidence. The Controller shall give written notice to the claimant if the Controller denies the claim in whole or in part. The notice may be given by mailing it to the address, if any, stated in the claim as the address to which notices are to be sent. If no address is stated in the claim, the notice may be mailed to the address, if any, of the claimant as stated in the claim. A notice of denial need not be given if the claim fails to state either an address to which notices are to be sent or an address of the claimant.
(c) Interest shall not be payable on any claim paid under this chapter.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (g) of Section 1501, for purposes of filing a claim pursuant to this section, “owner” means the person who had legal right to the property before its escheat, the person’s heirs or estate representative, the person’s guardian or conservator, or a public administrator acting pursuant to the authority granted in Sections 7660 and 7661 of the Probate Code. An “owner” also means a nonprofit civic, charitable, or educational organization that granted a charter, sponsorship, or approval for the existence of the organization that had the legal right to the property before its escheat but that has dissolved or is no longer in existence, if the charter, sponsorship, approval, organization bylaws, or other governing documents provide that unclaimed or surplus property shall be conveyed to the granting organization upon dissolution or cessation to exist as a distinct legal entity. Only an owner, as defined in this subdivision, may file a claim with the Controller pursuant to this article.
(e) Following a public hearing, the Controller shall adopt guidelines and forms that shall provide specific instructions to assist owners in filing claims pursuant to this article.
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision, property reported to, and received by, the Controller pursuant to this chapter in the name of a state agency, including the University of California and the California State University, or a local agency, including a school district and community college district, may be transferred by the Controller directly to the state or local agency without the filing of a claim. Property transferred pursuant to this subdivision is immune from suit pursuant to Section 1566 in the same manner as if the state or local agency had filed a claim to the property. For purposes of this subdivision, “local agency” means a city, county, city and county, or district.

SEC. 27.

 Section 510 of the Family Code is amended to read:

510.
 (a) If a confidential marriage license is lost, damaged, or destroyed after the performance of the marriage, but before it is returned to the county clerk, or deemed unacceptable for registration by the county clerk, the person solemnizing the marriage, in order to comply with Section 506, shall obtain a duplicate marriage license by filing an affidavit setting forth the facts with the county clerk of the county in which the license was issued.
(b) The duplicate license may not be issued later than one year after the date of the marriage and shall be returned by the person solemnizing the marriage to the county clerk within one year of the date of the marriage.
(c) The county clerk may charge a fee to cover the actual costs of issuing a duplicate marriage license.
(d) If a marriage license is lost, damaged, or destroyed before a marriage ceremony takes place, the applicants shall purchase a new marriage license and the old license shall be voided.

SEC. 28.

 Section 4055 of the Family Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 730 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:

4055.
 (a) The statewide uniform guideline for determining child support orders is as follows: CS = K[HN - (H%)(TN)].
(b) (1) The components of the formula are as follows:
(A) CS = child support amount.
(B) K = amount of both parents’ income to be allocated for child support as set forth in paragraph (3).
(C) HN = high earner’s net monthly disposable income.
(D) H% = approximate percentage of time that the high earner has or will have primary physical responsibility for the children compared to the other parent. In cases in which parents have different time-sharing arrangements for different children, H% equals the average of the approximate percentages of time the high earner parent spends with each child.
(E) TN = total net monthly disposable income of both parties.
(2) To compute net disposable income, see Section 4059.
(3) K (amount of both parents’ income allocated for child support) equals one plus H% (if H% is less than or equal to 50 percent) or two minus H% (if H% is greater than 50 percent) times the following fraction:
Total Net Disposable
Income Per Month
K
$0–800
0.20 + TN/16,000
$801–6,666
0.25
$6,667–10,000
0.10 + 1,000/TN
Over $10,000
0.12 + 800/TN
For example, if H% equals 20 percent and the total monthly net disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (1 + 0.20) × 0.25, or 0.30. If H% equals 80 percent and the total monthly net disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (2 - 0.80) × 0.25, or 0.30.
(4) For more than one child, multiply CS by:
 2 children
1.6
 3 children
2
 4 children
2.3
 5 children
2.5
 6 children
2.625
 7 children
2.75
 8 children
2.813
 9 children
2.844
10 children
2.86
(5) If the amount calculated under the formula results in a positive number, the higher earner shall pay that amount to the lower earner. If the amount calculated under the formula results in a negative number, the lower earner shall pay the absolute value of that amount to the higher earner.
(6) In any default proceeding where proof is by affidavit pursuant to Section 2336, or in any proceeding for child support in which a party fails to appear after being duly noticed, H% shall be set at zero in the formula if the noncustodial parent is the higher earner or at 100 if the custodial parent is the higher earner, where there is no evidence presented demonstrating the percentage of time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical responsibility for the children. H% shall not be set as described in paragraph (3) if the moving party in a default proceeding is the noncustodial parent or if the party who fails to appear after being duly noticed is the custodial parent. A statement by the party who is not in default as to the percentage of time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical responsibility for the children shall be deemed sufficient evidence.
(7) In all cases in which the net disposable income per month of the obligor is less than one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500), adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases, there is a rebuttable presumption that the obligor is entitled to a low-income adjustment. The Judicial Council shall annually determine the amount of the net disposable income adjustment based on the change in the annual California Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research. The presumption may be rebutted by evidence showing that the application of the low-income adjustment would be unjust and inappropriate in the particular case. In determining whether the presumption is rebutted, the court shall consider the principles provided in Section 4053, and the impact of the contemplated adjustment on the respective net incomes of the obligor and the obligee. The low-income adjustment shall reduce the child support amount otherwise determined under this section by an amount that is no greater than the amount calculated by multiplying the child support amount otherwise determined under this section by a fraction, the numerator of which is 1,500, adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases, minus the obligor’s net disposable income per month, and the denominator of which is 1,500, adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases.
(8) Unless the court orders otherwise, the order for child support shall allocate the support amount so that the amount of support for the youngest child is the amount of support for one child, and the amount for the next youngest child is the difference between that amount and the amount for two children, with similar allocations for additional children. However, this paragraph does not apply to cases in which there are different time-sharing arrangements for different children or where the court determines that the allocation would be inappropriate in the particular case.
(c) If a court uses a computer to calculate the child support order, the computer program shall not automatically default affirmatively or negatively on whether a low-income adjustment is to be applied. If the low-income adjustment is applied, the computer program shall not provide the amount of the low-income adjustment. Instead, the computer program shall ask the user whether or not to apply the low-income adjustment, and if answered affirmatively, the computer program shall provide the range of the adjustment permitted by paragraph (7) of subdivision (b).

SEC. 29.

 Section 4055 of the Family Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 730 of the Statutes of 2017, is repealed.

SEC. 30.

 Section 17212 of the Family Code is amended to read:

17212.
 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature to protect individual rights of privacy, and to facilitate and enhance the effectiveness of the child and spousal support enforcement program, by ensuring the confidentiality of support enforcement and child abduction records, and to thereby encourage the full and frank disclosure of information relevant to all of the following:
(1) The establishment or maintenance of parent and child relationships and support obligations.
(2) The enforcement of the child support liability of absent parents.
(3) The enforcement of spousal support liability of the spouse or former spouse to the extent required by the state plan under Section 17604 and Part 6 (commencing with Section 5700.101) of Division 9.
(4) The location of absent parents.
(5) The location of parents and children abducted, concealed, or detained by them.
(b) (1) (A) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all files, applications, papers, documents, and records established or maintained by a public entity pursuant to the administration and implementation of the child and spousal support enforcement program established pursuant to Part D (commencing with Section 651) of Subchapter IV of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code and this division, shall be confidential, and shall not be open to examination or released for disclosure for any purpose not directly connected with the administration of the child and spousal support enforcement program. A public entity shall not disclose any file, application, paper, document, or record, or the information contained therein, except as expressly authorized by this section.
(B) For purposes of this section, “public entity” does not include the court. This subparagraph is declaratory of existing law.
(2) Information shall not be released or the whereabouts of one party or the child disclosed to another party, or to the attorney of any other party, if a protective order has been issued by a court or administrative agency with respect to the party, a good cause claim under Section 11477.04 of the Welfare and Institutions Code has been approved or is pending, or the public agency responsible for establishing paternity or enforcing support has reason to believe that the release of the information may result in physical or emotional harm to the party or the child. When a local child support agency is prohibited from releasing information pursuant to this subdivision, the information shall be omitted from any pleading or document to be submitted to the court and this subdivision shall be cited in the pleading or other document as the authority for the omission. The information shall be released only upon an order of the court pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (c).
(3) Notwithstanding any other law, a proof of service filed by the local child support agency shall not disclose the address where service of process was accomplished. Instead, the local child support agency shall keep the address in its own records. The proof of service shall specify that the address is on record at the local child support agency and that the address may be released only upon an order from the court pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (c). The local child support agency shall, upon request by a party served, release to that person the address where service was effected.
(c) Disclosure of the information described in subdivision (b) is authorized as follows:
(1) All files, applications, papers, documents, and records as described in subdivision (b) shall be available and may be used by a public entity for all administrative, civil, or criminal investigations, actions, proceedings, or prosecutions conducted in connection with the administration of the child and spousal support enforcement program approved under Part D (commencing with Section 651) of Subchapter IV of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code and to the county welfare department responsible for administering a program operated under a state plan pursuant to Part A, Subpart 1 or 2 of Part B, or Part E of Subchapter IV of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code.
(2) A document requested by a person who wrote, prepared, or furnished the document may be examined by or disclosed to that person or a designee.
(3) The payment history of an obligor pursuant to a support order may be examined by or released to the court, the obligor, or the person on whose behalf enforcement actions are being taken or that person’s designee.
(4) An income and expense declaration of either parent may be released to the other parent for the purpose of establishing or modifying a support order.
(5) Public records subject to disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) may be released.
(6) After a noticed motion and a finding by the court, in a case in which establishment or enforcement actions are being taken, that release or disclosure to the obligor or obligee is required by due process of law, the court may order a public entity that possesses an application, paper, document, or record as described in subdivision (b) to make that item available to the obligor or obligee for examination or copying, or to disclose to the obligor or obligee the contents of that item. Article 9 (commencing with Section 1040) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code shall not be applicable to proceedings under this part. At any hearing of a motion filed pursuant to this section, the court shall inquire of the local child support agency and the parties appearing at the hearing if there is reason to believe that release of the requested information may result in physical or emotional harm to a party. If the court determines that harm may occur, the court shall issue any protective orders or injunctive orders restricting the use and disclosure of the information as are necessary to protect the individuals.
(7) To the extent not prohibited by federal law or regulation, information indicating the existence or imminent threat of a crime against a child, or location of a concealed, detained, or abducted child, or the location of the concealing, detaining, or abducting person, may be disclosed to a district attorney, an appropriate law enforcement agency, or to a state or county child protective agency, or may be used in any judicial proceedings to prosecute that crime or to protect the child.
(8) The social security number, most recent address, and the place of employment of the absent parent may be released to an authorized person as defined in Section 653(c) of Title 42 of the United States Code, only if the authorized person has filed a request for the information, and only if the information has been provided to the California Parent Locator Service by the federal Parent Locator Service pursuant to Section 653 of Title 42 of the United States Code.
(9) A parent’s or relative’s name, social security number, most recent address, telephone number, place of employment, or other contact information may be released to a county child welfare agency or county probation department pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 17506.
(d) (1) “Administration and implementation of the child and spousal support enforcement program,” as used in this division, means the carrying out of the state and local plans for establishing, modifying, and enforcing child support obligations, enforcing spousal support orders, and determining paternity pursuant to Part D (commencing with Section 651) of Subchapter IV of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code and this article.
(2) For purposes of this division, “obligor” means a person owing a duty of support.
(3) As used in this division, “putative parent” shall refer to any person reasonably believed to be the parent of a child for whom the local child support agency is attempting to establish paternity or establish, modify, or enforce support pursuant to Section 17400.
(e) A person who willfully, knowingly, and intentionally violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(f) This section does not compel the disclosure of information relating to a deserting parent who is a recipient of aid under a public assistance program for which federal aid is paid to this state, if that information is required to be kept confidential by the federal law or regulations relating to the program.

SEC. 31.

 Section 12921 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12921.
 (a) The opportunity to seek, obtain, and hold employment without discrimination because of race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status is hereby recognized as and declared to be a civil right.
(b) The opportunity to seek, obtain, and hold housing without discrimination because of race, color, religion, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, sexual orientation, marital status, national origin, ancestry, familial status, source of income, disability, veteran or military status, genetic information, or any other basis prohibited by Section 51 of the Civil Code is hereby recognized as and declared to be a civil right.

SEC. 32.

 Section 12926 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12926.
 As used in this part in connection with unlawful practices, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the context:
(a) “Affirmative relief” or “prospective relief” includes the authority to order reinstatement of an employee, awards of backpay, reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses, hiring, transfers, reassignments, grants of tenure, promotions, cease and desist orders, posting of notices, training of personnel, testing, expunging of records, reporting of records, and any other similar relief that is intended to correct unlawful practices under this part.
(b) “Age” refers to the chronological age of any individual who has reached a 40th birthday.
(c) Except as provided by Section 12926.05, “employee” does not include any individual employed by that person’s parent, spouse, or child or any individual employed under a special license in a nonprofit sheltered workshop or rehabilitation facility.
(d) “Employer” includes any person regularly employing five or more persons, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, directly or indirectly, the state or any political or civil subdivision of the state, and cities, except as follows:
“Employer” does not include a religious association or corporation not organized for private profit.
(e) “Employment agency” includes any person undertaking for compensation to procure employees or opportunities to work.
(f) “Essential functions” means the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires. “Essential functions” does not include the marginal functions of the position.
(1) A job function may be considered essential for any of several reasons, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following:
(A) The function may be essential because the reason the position exists is to perform that function.
(B) The function may be essential because of the limited number of employees available among whom the performance of that job function can be distributed.
(C) The function may be highly specialized, so that the incumbent in the position is hired based on expertise or the ability to perform a particular function.
(2) Evidence of whether a particular function is essential includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(A) The employer’s judgment as to which functions are essential.
(B) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or interviewing applicants for the job.
(C) The amount of time spent on the job performing the function.
(D) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform the function.
(E) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
(F) The work experiences of past incumbents in the job.
(G) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs.
(g) (1) “Genetic information” means, with respect to any individual, information about any of the following:
(A) The individual’s genetic tests.
(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual.
(C) The manifestation of a disease or disorder in family members of the individual.
(2) “Genetic information” includes any request for, or receipt of, genetic services, or participation in clinical research that includes genetic services, by an individual or any family member of the individual.
(3) “Genetic information” does not include information about the sex or age of any individual.
(h) “Labor organization” includes any organization that exists and is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or protection.
(i) “Medical condition” means either of the following:
(1) Any health impairment related to or associated with a diagnosis of cancer or a record or history of cancer.
(2) Genetic characteristics. For purposes of this section, “genetic characteristics” means either of the following:
(A) Any scientifically or medically identifiable gene or chromosome, or combination or alteration thereof, that is known to be a cause of a disease or disorder in a person or that person’s offspring, or that is determined to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that is presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or disorder.
(B) Inherited characteristics that may derive from the individual or family member, that are known to be a cause of a disease or disorder in a person or that person’s offspring, or that are determined to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that are presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or disorder.
(j) “Mental disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Having any mental or psychological disorder or condition, such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, or specific learning disabilities, that limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:
(A) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating measures, such as medications, assistive devices, or reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a major life activity.
(B) A mental or psychological disorder or condition limits a major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.
(C) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and shall include physical, mental, and social activities and working.
(2) Any other mental or psychological disorder or condition not described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related services.
(3) Having a record or history of a mental or psychological disorder or condition described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.
(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, any mental condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, a mental or psychological disorder or condition that has no present disabling effect, but that may become a mental disability as described in paragraph (1) or (2).
“Mental disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.
(k) “Veteran or military status” means a member or veteran of the United States Armed Forces, United States Armed Forces Reserve, the United States National Guard, and the California National Guard.
(l) “On the bases enumerated in this part” means or refers to discrimination on the basis of one or more of the following: race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status.
(m) “Physical disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Having any physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss that does both of the following:
(A) Affects one or more of the following body systems: neurological, immunological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory, including speech organs, cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic and lymphatic, skin, and endocrine.
(B) Limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:
(i) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating measures such as medications, assistive devices, prosthetics, or reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a major life activity.
(ii) A physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss limits a major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.
(iii) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and includes physical, mental, and social activities and working.
(2) Any other health impairment not described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related services.
(3) Having a record or history of a disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.
(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, any physical condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, a disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment that has no present disabling effect but may become a physical disability as described in paragraph (1) or (2).
(6) “Physical disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.
(n) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (m), if the definition of “disability” used in the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (Public Law 101-336) would result in broader protection of the civil rights of individuals with a mental disability or physical disability, as defined in subdivision (j) or (m), or would include any medical condition not included within those definitions, then that broader protection or coverage shall be deemed incorporated by reference into, and shall prevail over conflicting provisions of, the definitions in subdivisions (j) and (m).
(o) “Race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status” includes a perception that the person has any of those characteristics or that the person is associated with a person who has, or is perceived to have, any of those characteristics.
(p) “Reasonable accommodation” may include either of the following:
(1) Making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities.
(2) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, reassignment to a vacant position, acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials or policies, the provision of qualified readers or interpreters, and other similar accommodations for individuals with disabilities.
(q) “Religious creed,” “religion,” “religious observance,” “religious belief,” and “creed” include all aspects of religious belief, observance, and practice, including religious dress and grooming practices. “Religious dress practice” shall be construed broadly to include the wearing or carrying of religious clothing, head or face coverings, jewelry, artifacts, and any other item that is part of an individual observing a religious creed. “Religious grooming practice” shall be construed broadly to include all forms of head, facial, and body hair that are part of an individual observing a religious creed.
(r) (1) “Sex” includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(A) Pregnancy or medical conditions related to pregnancy.
(B) Childbirth or medical conditions related to childbirth.
(C) Breastfeeding or medical conditions related to breastfeeding.
(2) “Sex” also includes, but is not limited to, a person’s gender. “Gender” means sex, and includes a person’s gender identity and gender expression. “Gender expression” means a person’s gender-related appearance and behavior whether or not stereotypically associated with the person’s assigned sex at birth.
(s) “Sexual orientation” means heterosexuality, homosexuality, and bisexuality.
(t) “Supervisor” means any individual having the authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or the responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend that action, if, in connection with the foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.
(u) “Undue hardship” means an action requiring significant difficulty or expense, when considered in light of the following factors:
(1) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.
(2) The overall financial resources of the facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodations, the number of persons employed at the facility, and the effect on expenses and resources or the impact otherwise of these accommodations upon the operation of the facility.
(3) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the overall size of the business of a covered entity with respect to the number of employees, and the number, type, and location of its facilities.
(4) The type of operations, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of the entity.
(5) The geographic separateness or administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities.
(v) “National origin” discrimination includes, but is not limited to, discrimination on the basis of possessing a driver’s license granted under Section 12801.9 of the Vehicle Code.
(w) “Race” is inclusive of traits historically associated with race, including, but not limited to, hair texture and protective hairstyles.
(x) “Protective hairstyles” includes, but is not limited to, such hairstyles as braids, locks, and twists.

SEC. 33.

 Section 12940 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12940.
 It is an unlawful employment practice, unless based upon a bona fide occupational qualification, or, except where based upon applicable security regulations established by the United States or the State of California:
(a) For an employer, because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status of any person, to refuse to hire or employ the person or to refuse to select the person for a training program leading to employment, or to bar or to discharge the person from employment or from a training program leading to employment, or to discriminate against the person in compensation or in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment.
(1) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to hire or discharging an employee with a physical or mental disability, or subject an employer to any legal liability resulting from the refusal to employ or the discharge of an employee with a physical or mental disability, if the employee, because of a physical or mental disability, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties even with reasonable accommodations, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations.
(2) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to hire or discharging an employee who, because of the employee’s medical condition, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties even with reasonable accommodations, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations. Nothing in this part shall subject an employer to any legal liability resulting from the refusal to employ or the discharge of an employee who, because of the employee’s medical condition, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations.
(3) Nothing in this part relating to discrimination on account of marital status shall do either of the following:
(A) Affect the right of an employer to reasonably regulate, for reasons of supervision, safety, security, or morale, the working of spouses in the same department, division, or facility, consistent with the rules and regulations adopted by the commission.
(B) Prohibit bona fide health plans from providing additional or greater benefits to employees with dependents than to those employees without or with fewer dependents.
(4) Nothing in this part relating to discrimination on account of sex shall affect the right of an employer to use veteran status as a factor in employee selection or to give special consideration to Vietnam-era veterans.
(5) (A) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to employ an individual because of the individual’s age if the law compels or provides for that refusal. Promotions within the existing staff, hiring or promotion on the basis of experience and training, rehiring on the basis of seniority and prior service with the employer, or hiring under an established recruiting program from high schools, colleges, universities, or trade schools do not, in and of themselves, constitute unlawful employment practices.
(B) The provisions of this part relating to discrimination on the basis of age do not prohibit an employer from providing health benefits or health care reimbursement plans to retired persons that are altered, reduced, or eliminated when the person becomes eligible for Medicare health benefits. This subparagraph applies to all retiree health benefit plans and contractual provisions or practices concerning retiree health benefits and health care reimbursement plans in effect on or after January 1, 2011.
(b) For a labor organization, because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status of any person, to exclude, expel, or restrict from its membership the person, or to provide only second-class or segregated membership or to discriminate against any person because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status of the person in the election of officers of the labor organization or in the selection of the labor organization’s staff or to discriminate in any way against any of its members or against any employer or against any person employed by an employer.
(c) For any person to discriminate against any person in the selection, termination, training, or other terms or treatment of that person in any apprenticeship training program, any other training program leading to employment, an unpaid internship, or another limited duration program to provide unpaid work experience for that person because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status of the person discriminated against.
(d) For any employer or employment agency to print or circulate or cause to be printed or circulated any publication, or to make any nonjob-related inquiry of an employee or applicant, either verbal or through use of an application form, that expresses, directly or indirectly, any limitation, specification, or discrimination as to race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status, or any intent to make any such limitation, specification, or discrimination. This part does not prohibit an employer or employment agency from inquiring into the age of an applicant, or from specifying age limitations, if the law compels or provides for that action.
(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) or (3), for any employer or employment agency to require any medical or psychological examination of an applicant, to make any medical or psychological inquiry of an applicant, to make any inquiry whether an applicant has a mental disability or physical disability or medical condition, or to make any inquiry regarding the nature or severity of a physical disability, mental disability, or medical condition.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may inquire into the ability of an applicant to perform job-related functions and may respond to an applicant’s request for reasonable accommodation.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may require a medical or psychological examination or make a medical or psychological inquiry of a job applicant after an employment offer has been made but prior to the commencement of employment duties, provided that the examination or inquiry is job related and consistent with business necessity and that all entering employees in the same job classification are subject to the same examination or inquiry.
(f) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), for any employer or employment agency to require any medical or psychological examination of an employee, to make any medical or psychological inquiry of an employee, to make any inquiry whether an employee has a mental disability, physical disability, or medical condition, or to make any inquiry regarding the nature or severity of a physical disability, mental disability, or medical condition.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may require any examinations or inquiries that it can show to be job related and consistent with business necessity. An employer or employment agency may conduct voluntary medical examinations, including voluntary medical histories, which are part of an employee health program available to employees at that worksite.
(g) For any employer, labor organization, or employment agency to harass, discharge, expel, or otherwise discriminate against any person because the person has made a report pursuant to Section 11161.8 of the Penal Code that prohibits retaliation against hospital employees who report suspected patient abuse by health facilities or community care facilities.
(h) For any employer, labor organization, employment agency, or person to discharge, expel, or otherwise discriminate against any person because the person has opposed any practices forbidden under this part or because the person has filed a complaint, testified, or assisted in any proceeding under this part.
(i) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden under this part, or to attempt to do so.
(j) (1) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, apprenticeship training program or any training program leading to employment, or any other person, because of race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or veteran or military status, to harass an employee, an applicant, an unpaid intern or volunteer, or a person providing services pursuant to a contract. Harassment of an employee, an applicant, an unpaid intern or volunteer, or a person providing services pursuant to a contract by an employee, other than an agent or supervisor, shall be unlawful if the entity, or its agents or supervisors, knows or should have known of this conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. An employer may also be responsible for the acts of nonemployees, with respect to harassment of employees, applicants, unpaid interns or volunteers, or persons providing services pursuant to a contract in the workplace, if the employer, or its agents or supervisors, knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. In reviewing cases involving the acts of nonemployees, the extent of the employer’s control and any other legal responsibility that the employer may have with respect to the conduct of those nonemployees shall be considered. An entity shall take all reasonable steps to prevent harassment from occurring. Loss of tangible job benefits shall not be necessary in order to establish harassment.
(2) The provisions of this subdivision are declaratory of existing law, except for the new duties imposed on employers with regard to harassment.
(3) An employee of an entity subject to this subdivision is personally liable for any harassment prohibited by this section that is perpetrated by the employee, regardless of whether the employer or covered entity knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action.
(4) (A) For purposes of this subdivision only, “employer” means any person regularly employing one or more persons or regularly receiving the services of one or more persons providing services pursuant to a contract, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, directly or indirectly, the state, or any political or civil subdivision of the state, and cities. The definition of “employer” in subdivision (d) of Section 12926 applies to all provisions of this section other than this subdivision.
(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), for purposes of this subdivision, “employer” does not include a religious association or corporation not organized for private profit, except as provided in Section 12926.2.
(C) For purposes of this subdivision, “harassment” because of sex includes sexual harassment, gender harassment, and harassment based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Sexually harassing conduct need not be motivated by sexual desire.
(5) For purposes of this subdivision, “a person providing services pursuant to a contract” means a person who meets all of the following criteria:
(A) The person has the right to control the performance of the contract for services and discretion as to the manner of performance.
(B) The person is customarily engaged in an independently established business.
(C) The person has control over the time and place the work is performed, supplies the tools and instruments used in the work, and performs work that requires a particular skill not ordinarily used in the course of the employer’s work.
(k) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, apprenticeship training program, or any training program leading to employment, to fail to take all reasonable steps necessary to prevent discrimination and harassment from occurring.
(l) (1) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to refuse to hire or employ a person or to refuse to select a person for a training program leading to employment or to bar or to discharge a person from employment or from a training program leading to employment, or to discriminate against a person in compensation or in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because of a conflict between the person’s religious belief or observance and any employment requirement, unless the employer or other entity covered by this part demonstrates that it has explored any available reasonable alternative means of accommodating the religious belief or observance, including the possibilities of excusing the person from those duties that conflict with the person’s religious belief or observance or permitting those duties to be performed at another time or by another person, but is unable to reasonably accommodate the religious belief or observance without undue hardship, as defined in subdivision (u) of Section 12926, on the conduct of the business of the employer or other entity covered by this part. Religious belief or observance, as used in this section, includes, but is not limited to, observance of a Sabbath or other religious holy day or days, reasonable time necessary for travel prior and subsequent to a religious observance, and religious dress practice and religious grooming practice as described in subdivision (q) of Section 12926. This subdivision shall also apply to an apprenticeship training program, an unpaid internship, and any other program to provide unpaid experience for a person in the workplace or industry.
(2) An accommodation of an individual’s religious dress practice or religious grooming practice is not reasonable if the accommodation requires segregation of the individual from other employees or the public.
(3) An accommodation is not required under this subdivision if it would result in a violation of this part or any other law prohibiting discrimination or protecting civil rights, including subdivision (b) of Section 51 of the Civil Code and Section 11135 of this code.
(4) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to, in addition to the employee protections provided pursuant to subdivision (h), retaliate or otherwise discriminate against a person for requesting accommodation under this subdivision, regardless of whether the request was granted.
(m) (1) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to fail to make reasonable accommodation for the known physical or mental disability of an applicant or employee. Nothing in this subdivision or in paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) shall be construed to require an accommodation that is demonstrated by the employer or other covered entity to produce undue hardship, as defined in subdivision (u) of Section 12926, to its operation.
(2) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to, in addition to the employee protections provided pursuant to subdivision (h), retaliate or otherwise discriminate against a person for requesting accommodation under this subdivision, regardless of whether the request was granted.
(n) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to fail to engage in a timely, good faith, interactive process with the employee or applicant to determine effective reasonable accommodations, if any, in response to a request for reasonable accommodation by an employee or applicant with a known physical or mental disability or known medical condition.
(o) For an employer or other entity covered by this part, to subject, directly or indirectly, any employee, applicant, or other person to a test for the presence of a genetic characteristic.
(p) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as preventing the ability of employers to identify members of the military or veterans for purposes of awarding a veteran’s preference as permitted by law.

SEC. 34.

 Section 14985.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:

14985.8.
 The commission shall compile the following data with respect to any demand letter or complaint sent to the commission pursuant to Section 55.32 of the Civil Code and post the information on its internet website pursuant to the following:
(a) The commission shall identify the various types of construction-related physical access violations alleged in the demand letters and in the complaints, respectively, and shall tabulate the number of claims alleged for each type of violation in the demand letters and complaints, respectively. For purposes of this subdivision, any demand for money letters shall be grouped as demand letters.
(b) Periodically, but not less than every six months beginning July 31, 2013, the commission shall post on its internet website a list, by type, of the 10 most frequent types of accessibility violations alleged in the demand letters and in the complaints, respectively, and the numbers of alleged violations for each listed type of violation for the prior two quarters.
(c) The commission shall, on a quarterly basis, identify and tabulate the number of demand letters and complaints received by the commission. The commission shall further ascertain whether a complaint was filed in state or federal court and tabulate the number of complaints filed in state or federal court, respectively. This data shall be posted on the commission’s internet website periodically, but not less than every six months beginning July 31, 2013.
(d) Commencing in 2014, and notwithstanding Section 10231.5, the commission shall make an annual report to the Legislature and the Chairs of the Senate and Assembly Committees on Judiciary by January 31 of each year of the tabulated data for the preceding calendar year as set forth in subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive. A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.
(e) At least 30 days before requiring a new standard format for the information to be sent to the commission pursuant to Section 55.32 of the Civil Code, the commission shall post on its internet website the new standard format and the date on which the commission shall begin requiring that information to be sent to the commission in the new standard format.

SEC. 35.

 Section 1320.24 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.24.
 (a) The Judicial Council shall adopt California Rules of Court and forms, as needed, to do all of the following:
(1) Prescribe the proper use of pretrial risk assessment information by the court when making pretrial release and detention decisions that take into consideration the safety of the public and victims, the due process rights of the defendant, specific characteristics or needs of the defendant, and availability of local resources to effectively supervise individuals while maximizing efficiency.
(2) Describe the elements of “validation,” address the necessity and frequency of validation of risk assessment tools on local populations, and address the identification and mitigation of any implicit bias in assessment instruments.
(3) Prescribe standards for review, release, and detention by Pretrial Assessment Services and the court, that shall include a standard authorizing prearraignment detention if there is a substantial likelihood that no nonmonetary condition or combination of conditions of pretrial supervision will reasonably assure public safety or the appearance of the person as required.
(4) Prescribe the parameters of the local rule of court authorized in Section 1320.11, taking into consideration the safety of the public and the victims, the due process rights of the defendant, and availability of local resources to effectively supervise individuals while maximizing efficiency.
(5) Prescribe the imposition of pretrial release conditions, including the designation of risk levels or categories.
(b) The Judicial Council shall identify and define the minimum required data to be reported by each court. Courts shall submit data twice a year to the Judicial Council. Data will include, but not be limited to, the number of incidences in which individuals are:
(1) Assessed using a validated risk assessment tool, and the risk level of those individuals.
(2) Released on own recognizance or supervised own recognizance pursuant to:
(A) Subdivision (b) of Section 1320.10.
(B) Subdivision (c) of Section 1320.10.
(C) Section 1320.12, disaggregated by risk level.
(D) Section 1320.13, disaggregated by risk level.
(3) Detained at:
(A) Arraignment, disaggregated by risk level.
(B) A pretrial detention hearing, disaggregated by risk level.
(4) Released pretrial on own recognizance or on supervised own recognizance release who:
(A) Fail to appear at a required court appearance.
(B) Have charges filed for a new crime.
(5) Considered for release or detention at a preventive detention hearing.
(c) Pursuant to a contract under subdivision (a) of Section 1320.26, courts may require the entity providing pretrial assessment services to report the data in this section to the Judicial Council, where appropriate.
(d) On an annual basis, each court shall provide the following information to the Judicial Council:
(1) Whether the court conducts prearraignment reviews pursuant to Section 1320.13.
(2) The estimated amount of time required for making release and detention decisions at arraignment and preventive detention hearings.
(3) The validated risk assessment tool used by Pretrial Assessment Services.
(e) The Judicial Council shall do all of the following:
(1) Compile and maintain a list of validated pretrial risk assessment tools including those that are appropriate to assess for domestic violence, sex crimes, and other crimes of violence. The Judicial Council shall consult with Pretrial Assessment Services and other stakeholders in compiling the list of assessment tools.
(2) Collect data as prescribed in subdivision (b).
(3) Train judges on the use of pretrial risk assessment information when making pretrial release and detention decisions, and on the imposition of pretrial release conditions.
(4) In consultation with the Chief Probation Officers of California, assist courts in developing contracts with local public entities regarding the provision of pretrial assessment services.
(5) On or before January 1, 2023, and every other year thereafter, submit a report to the Governor and the Legislature documenting program implementation activities and providing data on program outputs and outcomes. The initial report shall focus on program implementation, and subsequent reports shall contain the data described in subdivision (b). A report to be submitted pursuant to this paragraph shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(6) Develop, in collaboration with the superior courts, an estimate of the amount of time taken at arraignment to make a release or detention determination when the determination is initially made at arraignment, and the estimated amount of time required for a preventive detention hearing.
(7) Convene a panel of subject matter experts and judicial officers to carry out the responsibilities described in subdivision (a) of Section 1320.25 and make the information available to courts.

SEC. 36.

 Section 1320.26 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 4 of Chapter 244 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:

1320.26.
 (a) The courts shall establish pretrial assessment services. The services may be performed by court employees or the court may contract for those services with a qualified local public agency with relevant experience.
(b) Before the court decides to not enter into a contract with a qualified local public agency, the court shall find that agency will not agree to perform this function with the resources available or does not have the capacity to perform the function.
(c) If no qualified local agency will agree to perform this pretrial assessment function for a superior court, and the court elects not to perform this function, the court may contract with a new local pretrial assessment services agency established to specifically perform this role.
(d) For the purpose of the provision of pretrial assessment services, the court may not contract with a qualified local public agency that has primary responsibility for making arrests and detentions within the jurisdiction.
(e) Pretrial assessment services shall be performed by public employees.
(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (h), the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara may contract with the Office of Pretrial Services of the County of Santa Clara to provide pretrial assessment services within the County of Santa Clara and that office shall be eligible for funding allocations pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1320.27 and Section 1320.28.
(g) On or before February 1, 2021, the presiding judge of the superior court and the chief probation officer of each county, or the director of the County of Santa Clara’s Office of Pretrial Services for that county, shall submit to the Judicial Council a letter confirming their intent to contract for pretrial assessment services pursuant to this section.
(h) For the purposes of this section:
(1) “Pretrial Assessment Services” does not include supervision of persons released under this chapter.
(2) A “qualified local public agency” is one with experience in all of the following:
(A) Relevant expertise in making risk-based determinations.
(B) Making recommendations to the courts pursuant to Section 1203.
(C) Supervising offenders in the community.
(D) Employing peace officers.

SEC. 37.

 Section 1320.26 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 980 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:

1320.26.
 (a) The courts shall establish pretrial assessment services. The services may be performed by court employees or the court may contract for those services with a qualified local public agency with relevant experience.
(b) Before the court decides to not enter into a contract with a qualified local public agency, the court shall find that agency will not agree to perform this function with the resources available or does not have the capacity to perform the function.
(c) If no qualified local agency will agree to perform this pretrial assessment function for a superior court, and the court elects not to perform this function, the court may contract with a new local pretrial assessment services agency established to specifically perform this role.
(d) For the purpose of the provision of pretrial assessment services, the court may not contract with a qualified local public agency that has primary responsibility for making arrests and detentions within the jurisdiction.
(e) Pretrial assessment services shall be performed by public employees.
(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (i), the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara may contract with the Office of Pretrial Services of the County of Santa Clara to provide pretrial assessment services within the County of Santa Clara and that office shall be eligible for funding allocations pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1320.27 and Section 1320.28.
(g) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), until January 1, 2025, a qualified local public agency in the City and County of San Francisco may contract with the existing not-for-profit entity that is performing pretrial services in the city and county for pretrial assessment services to provide continuity and sufficient time to transition the entity’s employees into public employment.
(h) On or before February 1, 2021, the presiding judge of the superior court and the chief probation officer of each county, or the director of the County of Santa Clara’s Office of Pretrial Services for that county, shall submit to the Judicial Council a letter confirming their intent to contract for pretrial assessment services pursuant to this section.
(i) For the purposes of this section:
(1) “Pretrial Assessment Services” does not include supervision of persons released under this chapter.
(2) A “qualified local public agency” is one with experience in all of the following:
(A) Relevant expertise in making risk-based determinations.
(B) Making recommendations to the courts pursuant to Section 1203.
(C) Supervising offenders in the community.
(D) Employing peace officers.

SEC. 38.

 Section 1320.30 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.30.
 (a) Upon appropriation by the Legislature, the Board of State and Community Corrections shall contract with an academic institution, public policy center, or other research entity for an independent evaluation of the act that enacted this section, particularly of the impact of the act by race, ethnicity, gender, and income level. This evaluation shall be submitted to the Secretary of the State Senate and the Chief Clerk of the State Assembly by no later than January 1, 2026.
(b) Beginning in the 2021–22 fiscal year, state funds shall supplement, not supplant, local funds allocated to pretrial supervision, assessments, services or other purposes related to pretrial activities, excluding detention.

SEC. 39.

 Section 1320.32 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.32.
 Commencing October 1, 2021, all references in this code to “bail” shall refer to the procedures specified in this chapter.

SEC. 40.

 Section 1320.33 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.33.
 (a) Defendants released on bail before October 1, 2021, shall remain on bail pursuant to the terms of their release.
(b) Defendants in custody on October 1, 2021, shall be considered for release pursuant to Section 1320.8, and, if not released, shall receive a risk assessment and be considered for release or detention pursuant to this chapter.

SEC. 41.

 Section 1320.34 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.34.
 This chapter shall become operative on October 1, 2021.

SEC. 42.

 Section 1320.35 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1320.35.
 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to understand and reduce biases based on gender, income level, race, or ethnicity in pretrial release decisionmaking.
(b) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Pretrial risk assessment tool” means an instrument used to determine the risks associated with individuals in the pretrial context.
(2) “Pretrial services agency” means a local public agency that elects to perform pretrial risk assessments on individuals and provides the assessment information to a court.
(3) “Release conditions framework” means the guidelines used by the pretrial services agency and the court to categorize varying degrees of risk for purposes of recommending whether to release or detain a person, whether to impose pretrial release conditions on a person, and guidance regarding those conditions.
(4) “Validate” means using scientifically accepted methods to measure both of the following:
(A) The accuracy and reliability of the risk assessment tool in assessing (i) the risk that an assessed person will fail to appear in court as required and (ii) the risk to public safety due to the commission of a new criminal offense if the person is released before the adjudication of the current criminal offense for which they have been charged.
(B) Any disparate effect or bias in the risk assessment tool based on gender, race, or ethnicity.
(c) (1) Any pretrial risk assessment tool used by a pretrial services agency shall be validated by July 1, 2021, and on a regular basis thereafter, but no less frequently than once every three years. A pretrial services agency may coordinate with the Judicial Council to validate a pretrial risk assessment tool.
(2) A pretrial risk assessment tool shall be validated using the most recent data collected by the pretrial services agency within its jurisdiction, or, if that data is unavailable, using the most recent data collected by a pretrial services agency in a similar jurisdiction within California.
(d) (1) In order to increase transparency, a pretrial services agency shall, with regard to a pretrial risk assessment tool that it utilizes, make the following information publicly available:
(A) Line items, scoring, and weighting, as well as details on how each line item is scored, for each pretrial risk assessment tool that the agency uses.
(B) Validation studies for each pretrial risk assessment tool that the agency uses.
(2) A pretrial services agency shall, when selecting which pretrial risk assessment tool to utilize, ensure that the agency would be able to comply with paragraph (1) if that tool was selected.
(e) The Judicial Council shall maintain a list of pretrial services agencies that have satisfied the validation requirement described in subdivision (c) and complied with the transparency requirements described in subdivision (d).
(f) Beginning on or before June 30, 2021, and on or before June 30 of each year thereafter, the Judicial Council shall publish on its internet website a report with data related to outcomes and potential biases in pretrial release. The report shall, at a minimum, include:
(1) The following information on each county pretrial release program:
(A) The name of the pretrial risk assessment tool that is used to inform release decisions by the court.
(B) The release conditions framework used in the county.
(C) Whether a pretrial services agency is conducting interviews as part of the risk assessment.
(2) The following information by superior court in large and medium courts and otherwise aggregated by superior court size:
(A) Rates of release granted prearraignment and rates of release granted pretrial, aggregated by gender, race or ethnicity, ZIP Code of residency and offense type.
(B) The percent of released individuals who make their required court appearances, aggregated by offense type and whether they were released on bail or pursuant to a risk assessment. For those released pursuant to a risk assessment, this information shall be aggregated by risk level.
(C) The percent of released individuals who are not charged with a new offense during the pretrial stage, aggregated by offense type and whether they were released on bail or pursuant to a risk assessment. For those released pursuant to a risk assessment, this information shall be aggregated by risk level.
(D) The number of assessed individuals by age, ZIP Code of residency, gender, and race or ethnicity.
(E) The number of assessed individuals by risk level, ZIP Code of residency, booking charge level, and release decision.
(F) The number and percentage of assessed individuals who receive pretrial supervision by level of supervision.
(G) The number and percentage of assessed individuals, by supervision level, who fail to appear in court as required, are arrested for a new offense during the pretrial period, or have pretrial release revoked.
(3) The following information on each risk assessment tool:
(A) The percent of released individuals who attend all of their required court appearances and are not charged with a new offense during the pretrial stage, aggregated by risk level.
(B) Risk levels aggregated by race or ethnicity, gender, offense type, ZIP Code of residency, and release or detention decision.
(C) The predictive accuracy of the tool by gender, race or ethnicity, and offense type.
(D) The proportion of cases in which the release or detention recommendation derived from the risk assessment is different than the release or detention decision imposed by the judicial officer.
(4) If feasible, the Judicial Council shall provide information on any disparate effect in the tools based on income level.
(g) (1) Pretrial services agencies and courts shall provide the Judicial Council the requisite data, as determined by the Judicial Council, to meet the requirements of this section.
(2) The Department of Justice shall work with the Judicial Council to provide the data necessary to fulfill the requirements of this section.
(3) The Judicial Council shall not share any individual-level data with any outside entity unless it has entered into a contract for research purposes with the entity and privacy protections are established to anonymize the data.
(h) The requirements of subdivisions (f) and (g) shall apply to pretrial services agencies that perform risk assessments pursuant to a contractual agreement with the courts, including all of the following:
(1) Agencies funded pursuant to the Budget Act of 2019 as pretrial pilot projects.
(2) Agencies otherwise funded by the state to perform risk assessments.
(3) Other agencies that perform risk assessments as long as sufficient funding is provided to the Judicial Council, the superior courts, and pretrial services agencies to ensure their ability to meet the data reporting requirements and standards set by the Judicial Council.
(i) (1) By January 1, 2023, the Judicial Council shall provide a report to the courts and the Legislature containing recommendations to mitigate bias and disparate effect in pretrial decisionmaking.
(2) A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

SEC. 43.

 Section 15642 of the Probate Code is amended to read:

15642.
 (a) A trustee may be removed in accordance with the trust instrument, by the court on its own motion, or on petition of a settlor, cotrustee, or beneficiary under Section 17200.
(b) The grounds for removal of a trustee by the court include the following:
(1) Where the trustee has committed a breach of the trust.
(2) Where the trustee is insolvent or otherwise unfit to administer the trust.
(3) Where hostility or lack of cooperation among cotrustees impairs the administration of the trust.
(4) Where the trustee fails or declines to act.
(5) Where the trustee’s compensation is excessive under the circumstances.
(6) Where the sole trustee is a person described in subdivision (a) of Section 21380, whether or not the person is the transferee of a donative transfer by the transferor, unless, based upon any evidence of the intent of the settlor and all other facts and circumstances, which shall be made known to the court, the court finds that it is consistent with the settlor’s intent that the trustee continue to serve and that this intent was not the product of fraud or undue influence. Any waiver by the settlor of this provision is against public policy and shall be void. This paragraph shall not apply to instruments that became irrevocable on or before January 1, 1994. This paragraph shall not apply if any of the following conditions are met:
(A) The settlor is related by blood or marriage to, or is a cohabitant with, any one or more of the trustees, the person who drafted or transcribed the instrument, or the person who caused the instrument to be transcribed.
(B) The instrument is reviewed by an independent attorney who (1) counsels the settlor about the nature of their intended trustee designation and (2) signs and delivers to the settlor and the designated trustee a certificate in substantially the following form:
“CERTIFICATE OF INDEPENDENT REVIEW
I,  _____ (attorney’s name) _____ , have reviewed
_____ (name of instrument) _____ and have counseled my client,
_____ (name of client) _____ , fully and privately on the nature and
legal effect of the designation as trustee of  _____ (name of trustee) _____
contained in that instrument. I am so disassociated from the interest of the person named as trustee as to be in a position to advise my client impartially and confidentially as to the consequences of the designation. On the basis of this counsel, I conclude that the designation of a person who would otherwise be subject to removal under paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 15642 of the Probate Code is clearly the settlor’s intent and that intent is not the product of fraud, menace, duress, or undue influence.
_____ (Name of Attorney) _____  (Date) ”
This independent review and certification may occur either before or after the instrument has been executed, and if it occurs after the date of execution, the named trustee shall not be subject to removal under this paragraph. Any attorney whose written engagement signed by the client is expressly limited to the preparation of a certificate under this subdivision, including the prior counseling, shall not be considered to otherwise represent the client.
(C) After full disclosure of the relationships of the persons involved, the instrument is approved pursuant to an order under Article 10 (commencing with Section 2580) of Chapter 6 of Part 4 of Division 4.
(7) If, as determined under Part 17 (commencing with Section 810) of Division 2, the trustee is substantially unable to manage the trust’s financial resources or is otherwise substantially unable to execute properly the duties of the office. When the trustee holds the power to revoke the trust, substantial inability to manage the trust’s financial resources or otherwise execute properly the duties of the office may not be proved solely by isolated incidents of negligence or improvidence.
(8) If the trustee is substantially unable to resist fraud or undue influence. When the trustee holds the power to revoke the trust, substantial inability to resist fraud or undue influence may not be proved solely by isolated incidents of negligence or improvidence.
(9) For other good cause.
(c) If, pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (b), the court finds that the designation of the trustee was not consistent with the intent of the settlor or was the product of fraud or undue influence, the person being removed as trustee shall bear all costs of the proceeding, including reasonable attorney’s fees.
(d) If the court finds that the petition for removal of the trustee was filed in bad faith and that removal would be contrary to the settlor’s intent, the court may order that the person or persons seeking the removal of the trustee bear all or any part of the costs of the proceeding, including reasonable attorney’s fees.
(e) If it appears to the court that trust property or the interests of a beneficiary may suffer loss or injury pending a decision on a petition for removal of a trustee and any appellate review, the court may, on its own motion or on petition of a cotrustee or beneficiary, compel the trustee whose removal is sought to surrender trust property to a cotrustee or to a receiver or temporary trustee. The court may also suspend the powers of the trustee to the extent the court deems necessary.
(f) For purposes of this section, the term “related by blood or marriage” shall include persons within the seventh degree.

SEC. 44.

 Section 19209 of the Public Contract Code is amended to read:

19209.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, the Judicial Council shall annually provide a report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and the State Auditor that provides information related to contracts and payments for the trial courts pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c). The report shall be provided no later than September 30 of each year, covering the state fiscal year ending June 30 of that year. Additionally, judicial branch entities using the Financial Information System for California (FISCal) shall participate with the state’s transparency effort by making their contract and payment information available for the state’s transparency websites on a rolling basis. For these entities, the judicial branch shall ensure their contract and payment information is entered in FISCal for the state transparency websites and for state department audit purposes.
(b) For the trial courts, payment data shall include a list of all vendors or contractors receiving payments during the reporting period. For each vendor or contractor receiving any payment during the reporting period, the report shall identify the amount of payment to the contractor or vendor, the type of service or good provided, and the judicial branch entity or entities with which the vendor or contractor was contracted to provide that service or good.
(c) For the trial courts, the report shall include all contracts and contract amendments made during the report period. The report shall identify the vendor or contractor, the type of service or good provided under the contract, and, if applicable, the nature of the amendment, the duration of the amendment, and the cost of the amendment.

SEC. 45.

 Section 100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

100.
 (a) The Judicial Council shall establish a planning and advisory group consisting of appropriate professional and program specialists to recommend on the development of program guidelines and funding procedures consistent with this chapter. At a minimum, the council shall adopt program guidelines consistent with the guidelines established by the National Court Appointed Special Advocate Association, and with California law, but the council may require additional or more stringent standards. State funding shall be contingent on a program adopting and adhering to the program guidelines adopted by the council.
(b) The program guidelines adopted by the council shall be adopted and incorporated into local rules of court by each participating superior court as a prerequisite to funding pursuant to this chapter.
(c) The council shall adopt program guidelines and criteria for funding that encourage multicounty CASA programs where appropriate, and shall not provide for funding more than one program per county.
(d) The council shall establish, in a timely fashion, a request-for-proposal process to establish, maintain, or expand local CASA programs and may require local matching funds or in-kind funds not to exceed the proposal request. The maximum state grant per county program per year shall not exceed seventy thousand dollars ($70,000) in counties in which the population is less than 700,000 and shall not exceed one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) in counties in which the population is 700,000 or more, according to the annual population report provided by the Department of Finance.

SEC. 46.

 No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.